A nurse is caring for a school-age child in the pediatric unit.
Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify what condition the client is most likely experiencing. 2 actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and 2 parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client's progress.
The Correct Answer is []
Rationale for correct choices:
- Nephrotic syndrome: The child shows hallmark signs of nephrotic syndrome—periorbital edema, fatigue, frothy urine, hypoalbuminemia (1.4 g/dL), hyperlipidemia (cholesterol 465 mg/dL), massive proteinuria (24 mg/dL), and specific gravity of 2.066. The elevated platelets and ESR also support an inflammatory renal process.
- Administer oral corticosteroids: Corticosteroids like prednisone are the first-line treatment for nephrotic syndrome as they reduce proteinuria by suppressing immune-mediated damage to the glomeruli.
- Encourage a low-sodium diet: A low-sodium diet helps control edema by minimizing fluid retention, which is especially important in children presenting with ascites and periorbital swelling.
- Abdominal girth: Measuring abdominal girth helps track changes in ascites and monitor the effectiveness of fluid management interventions like diet and medication.
- Urine specific gravity: Monitoring urine specific gravity assesses kidney concentration ability and fluid balance. Persistently elevated values may indicate worsening proteinuria or fluid imbalance
Rationale for incorrect choices:
- Acute glomerulonephritis: Although this condition can cause hematuria and edema, it typically follows a streptococcal infection and presents with hypertension, gross hematuria, and low urine output not massive proteinuria or hyperlipidemia.
- Chronic kidney disease: CKD develops over time and is characterized by progressive decline in renal function. This child’s symptoms and labs point more toward an acute or relapsing condition like nephrotic syndrome.
- Hemolytic uremic syndrome: HUS is associated with recent diarrheal illness, thrombocytopenia, anemia, and acute kidney injury—not heavy proteinuria or hypoalbuminemia. Platelet count here is high, not low as seen in HUS.
- Initiate contact precautions: Contact precautions are not routinely required for nephrotic syndrome unless there’s an active infection or immunosuppressive therapy risk—neither of which is indicated in the current scenario.
- Initiate peritoneal dialysis: Dialysis is reserved for end-stage renal disease or severe fluid overload unresponsive to other treatments. The child’s kidney function here, while abnormal, does not yet warrant dialysis.
- Administer antibiotics: There’s no evidence of bacterial infection—no fever, elevated WBC count, or infectious focus. Antibiotics are not appropriate without signs of infection.
- Head circumference: Head circumference is useful in infants for monitoring brain growth but irrelevant in school-age children with kidney disorders.
- Bilirubin: Bilirubin levels assess liver function and jaundice; they’re not relevant in evaluating nephrotic syndrome progression.
- HbA1c: HbA1c measures long-term glucose control in diabetes, not kidney function or protein loss. It's unrelated to the child’s current presentation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Fentanyl: Fentanyl is a potent opioid typically reserved for severe, acute, or chronic pain such as in surgical or cancer-related conditions. It is not commonly used for moderate pain in stable orthopedic cases like a simple fracture.
B. Aspirin: Aspirin is a mild analgesic and anti-inflammatory. It may help with mild pain but is inadequate for moderate pain rated 7/10. Additionally, its antiplatelet effects can increase bleeding risk, especially post-trauma.
C. Hydrocodone: Hydrocodone is an opioid analgesic appropriate for managing moderate to severe pain, such as that caused by a fracture. It is commonly used in combination with acetaminophen and is suitable for a pain rating of 7/10.
D. Acetaminophen: Acetaminophen is effective for mild to moderate pain but may not provide sufficient relief for pain rated at 7/10. It is often used adjunctively but would not be the primary choice in this scenario.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"C","dropdown-group-3":"C"}
Explanation
Rationale for Correct Choices:
- Antibiotic prescription: The client is showing signs of a possible postoperative wound infection (fever, elevated WBC count, purulent discharge, tenderness), all of which warrant initiation of antibiotics to control local and systemic infection.
- WBC count: The WBC has increased significantly from 8,000/mm³ on day 1 to 14,800/mm³ by day 3, indicating a developing infectious or inflammatory process likely related to the surgical site.
- Temperature: The temperature has risen to 38.8°C (101.8°F) by day 3, suggesting a febrile response to infection, which aligns with the findings of purulent wound drainage and local tenderness.
Rationale for Incorrect Choices:
- Laxative: Although the client hasn’t had a bowel movement, this is expected early in the postoperative period, especially with hypoactive bowel sounds. Laxatives are contraindicated until full bowel function returns.
- IV fluids: There is no evidence of fluid volume deficit skin turgor is normal, and vital signs are stable making IV fluids unnecessary at this time.
- Prescription for IV iron: While hemoglobin is low, there is no evidence of acute blood loss, and infection is the more urgent concern. Iron supplementation would be a longer-term consideration.
- Bowel sounds: Hypoactive bowel sounds are common after abdominal surgery and not in themselves a reason to start antibiotics.
- Blood pressure: Client's BP is stable and within acceptable range; it does not indicate infection or require antibiotic treatment.
- Skin turgor: Normal skin turgor suggests hydration is adequate, not an indication for antibiotic use.
- Transferrin level: While slightly decreased, this is a nonspecific finding and not indicative of acute infection or requiring antibiotics.
- Bowel movements: Absence of bowel movement alone post-surgery does not justify antibiotics; infection indicators are more critical.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.