A nurse is caring for a patient who has the following arterial blood values: pH 7.12, PaO 56 mm Hg, PaCO 65 mm Hg, and HCO - 22 mEq/L (22 mmol/L). Which clinical situation does the nurse correlate with these values?
Diabetic ketoacidosis in a person with emphysema
Diarrhea for 36 hours in an older, frail woman
Anxiety-induced hyperventiIation in an adolescent
Bronchial obstruction related to aspiration of a hot dog
The Correct Answer is D
A. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) in a person with emphysema:
In DKA, there is typically metabolic acidosis due to the accumulation of ketones in the blood, leading to a decrease in pH. However, the respiratory compensation mechanism in DKA usually results in a decreased PaCO2 (respiratory alkalosis) rather than an elevated PaCO2 as seen in the blood gas values provided. Additionally, emphysema is associated with chronic respiratory acidosis, not respiratory alkalosis as indicated by the elevated PaCO2.
B. Diarrhea for 36 hours in an older, frail woman:
Prolonged diarrhea can lead to metabolic acidosis due to the loss of bicarbonate through the gastrointestinal tract. The pH of 7.12 and the decreased HCO3- (22 mEq/L) suggest metabolic acidosis. However, the elevated PaCO2 (respiratory acidosis) is not consistent with pure metabolic acidosis caused by diarrhea. Respiratory acidosis typically occurs due to hypoventilation or respiratory dysfunction.
C. Anxiety-induced hyperventilation in an adolescent:
Anxiety-induced hyperventilation can lead to respiratory alkalosis due to excessive blowing off of CO2, resulting in a decrease in PaCO2. The pH of 7.12 is consistent with acidosis, but the elevated PaCO2 contradicts respiratory alkalosis. Anxiety-induced hyperventilation would typically result in a higher pH and lower PaCO2.
D. Bronchial obstruction related to aspiration of a hot dog:
A bronchial obstruction causing inadequate ventilation can lead to respiratory acidosis due to CO2 retention. The pH of 7.12 and the elevated PaCO2 (65 mm Hg) indicate respiratory acidosis. This situation is consistent with the blood gas values provided.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Increase the effectiveness of the skin graft:
Debridement can indeed increase the effectiveness of a skin graft by preparing a clean, viable wound bed for grafting. Removing dead tissue and debris helps the skin graft adhere to healthy tissue and promotes successful graft take. However, this is not the primary purpose of debridement.
B. Promote movement in the affected area:
While debridement can indirectly contribute to promoting movement by improving wound healing and reducing pain, the primary purpose of debridement is not to promote movement in the affected area.
C. Prevent infection and promote healing:
This statement accurately reflects the primary purpose of debridement. By removing nonviable tissue, debris, and foreign material from the wound, debridement helps prevent infection by reducing the bacterial load and creating an environment conducive to healing. It also promotes granulation tissue formation and wound contraction, which are essential for wound healing.
D. Promote suppuration of the wound:
Suppuration refers to the formation and discharge of pus from a wound, often indicating infection. Debridement aims to remove necrotic tissue and prevent infection, so promoting suppuration is not a desired outcome of debridement.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Full thickness:
Full-thickness burns involve damage to the entire thickness of the skin, including the epidermis and dermis. They often result in a white, charred, or leather-like appearance and are typically painless due to nerve damage. In the context of the patient's data, the description of "bilateral leg burns present with a white and leather-like appearance" indicates that the burns have penetrated deeply into the skin, suggesting full-thickness burns. The absence of blisters or bleeding is also consistent with full-thickness burns, as these burns often destroy the structures that would form blisters.
B. Superficial:
Superficial burns, also known as first-degree burns, only affect the outer layer of the skin (epidermis).They are characterized by redness, pain, and swelling but do not typically result in blisters or significant skin damage. The patient's description of "white and leather-like appearance" and the absence of blisters or bleeding are not indicative of superficial burns. Therefore, superficial burns are not an appropriate categorization based on the provided data.
C. Partial-thickness superficial:
Partial-thickness superficial burns, also known as second-degree superficial burns, affect the epidermis and part of the dermis. They are characterized by redness, blister formation, and pain. However, the description of "white and leather-like appearance" does not align with partial-thickness superficial burns, as these burns typically do not result in a white or charred appearance. Additionally, the absence of blisters or bleeding is not consistent with partial-thickness superficial burns.
D. Partial-thickness deep:
Partial-thickness deep burns, also known as second-degree deep burns, extend deeper into the dermis compared to partial-thickness superficial burns but do not penetrate through the entire dermis. They are characterized by redness, blister formation, and moderate to severe pain. The absence of blisters or bleeding and the description of "white and leather-like appearance" are more indicative of full-thickness burns rather than partial-thickness deep burns.
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