A patient is prescribed oral acyclovir for type 1 herpes simplex virus. What is the expected outcome if the patient is compliant with the medication regimen?
Prevents complications, such as meningitis or pneumonitis
Decreases the probability of recurrent outbreaks
Shortens the outbreak and lessens the severity of symptoms
Eliminates the likelihood of spreading the infection to others
The Correct Answer is C
A. Prevents complications, such as meningitis or pneumonitis
While oral acyclovir can be effective in managing HSV infections and reducing the severity of symptoms, it is not primarily used to prevent complications such as meningitis or pneumonitis. These complications may occur in severe cases of HSV infections, but oral acyclovir's main goal is to manage outbreaks and reduce symptoms.
B. Decreases the probability of recurrent outbreaks
Oral acyclovir can help reduce the frequency of recurrent outbreaks in individuals with HSV infections. However, it does not completely eliminate the probability of recurrent outbreaks. Some individuals may still experience occasional outbreaks even with regular use of oral acyclovir. The medication is more focused on managing outbreaks when they occur rather than preventing them entirely.
C. Shortens the outbreak and lessens the severity of symptoms
This option is the correct choice. Oral acyclovir is effective in shortening the duration of HSV outbreaks and reducing the severity of symptoms such as pain, itching, and lesions. It works by inhibiting the replication of the virus, which helps in faster healing and symptom relief. However, it does not cure the infection or eliminate the virus from the body.
D. Eliminates the likelihood of spreading the infection to others
While oral acyclovir can help manage outbreaks and reduce viral shedding, it does not completely eliminate the risk of spreading the infection to others. It can reduce the likelihood of transmission during active outbreaks, but individuals with HSV can still shed the virus and be contagious even when they are not experiencing visible symptoms. Therefore, other precautions such as practicing safe sex and avoiding close contact during outbreaks are also important for preventing transmission.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) in a person with emphysema:
In DKA, there is typically metabolic acidosis due to the accumulation of ketones in the blood, leading to a decrease in pH. However, the respiratory compensation mechanism in DKA usually results in a decreased PaCO2 (respiratory alkalosis) rather than an elevated PaCO2 as seen in the blood gas values provided. Additionally, emphysema is associated with chronic respiratory acidosis, not respiratory alkalosis as indicated by the elevated PaCO2.
B. Diarrhea for 36 hours in an older, frail woman:
Prolonged diarrhea can lead to metabolic acidosis due to the loss of bicarbonate through the gastrointestinal tract. The pH of 7.12 and the decreased HCO3- (22 mEq/L) suggest metabolic acidosis. However, the elevated PaCO2 (respiratory acidosis) is not consistent with pure metabolic acidosis caused by diarrhea. Respiratory acidosis typically occurs due to hypoventilation or respiratory dysfunction.
C. Anxiety-induced hyperventilation in an adolescent:
Anxiety-induced hyperventilation can lead to respiratory alkalosis due to excessive blowing off of CO2, resulting in a decrease in PaCO2. The pH of 7.12 is consistent with acidosis, but the elevated PaCO2 contradicts respiratory alkalosis. Anxiety-induced hyperventilation would typically result in a higher pH and lower PaCO2.
D. Bronchial obstruction related to aspiration of a hot dog:
A bronchial obstruction causing inadequate ventilation can lead to respiratory acidosis due to CO2 retention. The pH of 7.12 and the elevated PaCO2 (65 mm Hg) indicate respiratory acidosis. This situation is consistent with the blood gas values provided.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Intact skin with nonblanchable redness, painful, warm, soft localized area over a bony prominence
Stage 1 pressure injuries are characterized by intact skin with nonblanchable redness over a localized area, typically over a bony prominence like the sacrum, heel, or elbow. The skin may feel painful, warm, and soft to the touch. Nonblanchable redness means that when pressure is applied to the area, the redness does not fade or blanch (turn white). This stage indicates that tissue damage has occurred, but the skin is still intact.
B. Shallow, open, shiny, dry injury, pink-red wound bed without sloughing or bruising: This description is more indicative of a Stage 2 pressure injury, which involves partial-thickness skin loss with an intact or ruptured blister. The wound bed is usually pink or red, and there is no sloughing or bruising.
C. Full-thickness tissue loss, slough and black eschar in wound bed with undermining and tunneling: This description corresponds to a Stage 3 or Stage 4 pressure injury. Stage 3 involves full-thickness tissue loss with visible subcutaneous fat but no bone, tendon, or muscle exposed. Stage 4 involves extensive tissue loss with exposure of bone, tendon, or muscle. Both stages may include slough (yellow or white tissue) and black eschar (hard, necrotic tissue), along with undermining (tissue destruction under intact skin edges) and tunneling (narrow passageways extending from the wound).
D. Full-thickness tissue loss, subcutaneous fat visible, possible undermining and tunneling: This description also corresponds to a Stage 3 pressure injury, as it involves full-thickness tissue loss with visible subcutaneous fat. The mention of possible undermining and tunneling further suggests a Stage 3 pressure injury.
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