A patient is prescribed oral acyclovir for type 1 herpes simplex virus. What is the expected outcome if the patient is compliant with the medication regimen?
Prevents complications, such as meningitis or pneumonitis
Decreases the probability of recurrent outbreaks
Shortens the outbreak and lessens the severity of symptoms
Eliminates the likelihood of spreading the infection to others
The Correct Answer is C
A. Prevents complications, such as meningitis or pneumonitis
While oral acyclovir can be effective in managing HSV infections and reducing the severity of symptoms, it is not primarily used to prevent complications such as meningitis or pneumonitis. These complications may occur in severe cases of HSV infections, but oral acyclovir's main goal is to manage outbreaks and reduce symptoms.
B. Decreases the probability of recurrent outbreaks
Oral acyclovir can help reduce the frequency of recurrent outbreaks in individuals with HSV infections. However, it does not completely eliminate the probability of recurrent outbreaks. Some individuals may still experience occasional outbreaks even with regular use of oral acyclovir. The medication is more focused on managing outbreaks when they occur rather than preventing them entirely.
C. Shortens the outbreak and lessens the severity of symptoms
This option is the correct choice. Oral acyclovir is effective in shortening the duration of HSV outbreaks and reducing the severity of symptoms such as pain, itching, and lesions. It works by inhibiting the replication of the virus, which helps in faster healing and symptom relief. However, it does not cure the infection or eliminate the virus from the body.
D. Eliminates the likelihood of spreading the infection to others
While oral acyclovir can help manage outbreaks and reduce viral shedding, it does not completely eliminate the risk of spreading the infection to others. It can reduce the likelihood of transmission during active outbreaks, but individuals with HSV can still shed the virus and be contagious even when they are not experiencing visible symptoms. Therefore, other precautions such as practicing safe sex and avoiding close contact during outbreaks are also important for preventing transmission.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","D","E"]
Explanation
A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which is a potential complication of inhibiting aldosterone secretion and release. Aldosterone plays a key role in potassium regulation in the body by promoting potassium excretion in the kidneys. When aldosterone secretion is inhibited, potassium excretion decreases, leading to an accumulation of potassium in the bloodstream and resulting in hypokalemia. Symptoms of hypokalemia may include muscle weakness, cramping, irregular heartbeat, and fatigue.
B. Urine output of 1,200 mL in the last 2 hours:
This option does not directly relate to complications of inhibiting aldosterone secretion. A urine output of 1,200 mL in the last 2 hours indicates adequate urine production, which is generally a positive sign. However, in the context of inhibiting aldosterone secretion, the nurse would be more concerned about decreased urine output due to potential renal effects.
C. Blood osmolality of 250 mOsm/kg (250 mmol/kg):
Blood osmolality within the normal range (usually around 275-295 mOsm/kg) is not directly associated with complications of inhibiting aldosterone secretion. Blood osmolality reflects the concentration of solutes in the blood and is regulated by various factors, including water balance, electrolyte levels, and hormonal regulation. Inhibiting aldosterone secretion primarily affects electrolyte balance rather than blood osmolality.
D. Urine output of 25 mL/hr:
A urine output of 25 mL/hr is considered low and may indicate decreased renal perfusion or impaired kidney function. Inhibiting aldosterone secretion can affect renal function and urine output, leading to decreased urine production. Reduced urine output can contribute to fluid and electrolyte imbalances and may be a concern in patients with inhibited aldosterone secretion.
E. Serum potassium level of 5.4 mEq/L:
A serum potassium level of 5.4 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which is another potential complication of inhibiting aldosterone secretion. Aldosterone helps regulate potassium levels by promoting potassium excretion in the kidneys. When aldosterone secretion is inhibited, potassium excretion decreases, leading to an accumulation of potassium in the bloodstream and resulting in hyperkalemia. Symptoms of hyperkalemia may include muscle weakness, irregular heartbeat, nausea, and numbness or tingling.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A.Prone positioning and postural drainage are typically not appropriate interventions for a client 1 day postoperative following an open thoracotomy, as this could place stress on the incision site and cause discomfort or injury.
B.High-Fowler's position facilitates lung expansion, which can improve ventilation and oxygenation. Encouraging the use of an incentive spirometer and promoting coughing helps clear secretions and expand the lungs, addressing the mild respiratory acidosis indicated by the ABG results (pH 7.31 and PaCO2 50 mm Hg).
C.Increasing oxygen to 70% is not appropriate, as the PaO2 level is within normal limits (93 mm Hg). The client's issue appears to be related more to ventilation (indicated by the elevated PaCO2) rather than oxygenation, so additional oxygen would not address the underlying cause and could lead to oxygen toxicity if used long-term.
D.A nonrebreather mask delivers a high concentration of oxygen, which is not necessary in this case since the client’s PaO2 is already adequate. The primary issue is not a lack of oxygen but rather the retention of CO2, so promoting ventilation and lung expansion through positioning and respiratory exercises is more appropriate.
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