A patient is prescribed oral acyclovir for type 1 herpes simplex virus. What is the expected outcome if the patient is compliant with the medication regimen?
Prevents complications, such as meningitis or pneumonitis
Decreases the probability of recurrent outbreaks
Shortens the outbreak and lessens the severity of symptoms
Eliminates the likelihood of spreading the infection to others
The Correct Answer is C
A. Prevents complications, such as meningitis or pneumonitis
While oral acyclovir can be effective in managing HSV infections and reducing the severity of symptoms, it is not primarily used to prevent complications such as meningitis or pneumonitis. These complications may occur in severe cases of HSV infections, but oral acyclovir's main goal is to manage outbreaks and reduce symptoms.
B. Decreases the probability of recurrent outbreaks
Oral acyclovir can help reduce the frequency of recurrent outbreaks in individuals with HSV infections. However, it does not completely eliminate the probability of recurrent outbreaks. Some individuals may still experience occasional outbreaks even with regular use of oral acyclovir. The medication is more focused on managing outbreaks when they occur rather than preventing them entirely.
C. Shortens the outbreak and lessens the severity of symptoms
This option is the correct choice. Oral acyclovir is effective in shortening the duration of HSV outbreaks and reducing the severity of symptoms such as pain, itching, and lesions. It works by inhibiting the replication of the virus, which helps in faster healing and symptom relief. However, it does not cure the infection or eliminate the virus from the body.
D. Eliminates the likelihood of spreading the infection to others
While oral acyclovir can help manage outbreaks and reduce viral shedding, it does not completely eliminate the risk of spreading the infection to others. It can reduce the likelihood of transmission during active outbreaks, but individuals with HSV can still shed the virus and be contagious even when they are not experiencing visible symptoms. Therefore, other precautions such as practicing safe sex and avoiding close contact during outbreaks are also important for preventing transmission.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. A 60-year-old client with gastritis:
Gastritis is inflammation of the stomach lining and typically does not directly increase the risk of skin infections. However, if the gastritis is due to an underlying condition that affects the immune system, such as an autoimmune disorder, the client may have a slightly higher risk of infections, including skin infections, compared to a healthy individual of the same age. Overall, gastritis alone is not a significant risk factor for skin infections compared to the other options.
B. A 20-year-old client with a closed tibia fracture:
A closed tibia fracture refers to a broken shinbone that does not break the skin. While fractures themselves do not necessarily increase the risk of skin infections, they can indirectly contribute to infection risk if there are complications such as open wounds, surgical procedures, or prolonged immobilization. In this case, because the fracture is closed and presumably not complicated by open wounds or surgery, this client is not significantly prone to skin infections compared to the other options.
C. A 55-year-old client taking an ACE inhibitor:
ACE (angiotensin-converting enzyme) inhibitors are medications commonly used to treat conditions like high blood pressure and heart failure. While these medications can cause side effects like a dry cough or skin rash in some individuals, they do not directly increase the risk of skin infections. Unless the client experiences a severe allergic reaction or develops a rash that becomes infected, the use of ACE inhibitors alone is not a major risk factor for skin infections compared to the other options.
D. A 35-year-old client receiving chemotherapy:
Chemotherapy is a treatment for cancer that works by targeting rapidly dividing cells, including cancer cells but also affecting some healthy cells like those in the bone marrow responsible for producing white blood cells. As a result, chemotherapy can significantly weaken the immune system, leading to a higher risk of infections, including skin infections. Patients undergoing chemotherapy are particularly susceptible to bacterial, fungal, and viral infections due to their compromised immune response. Therefore, the 35-year-old client receiving chemotherapy is the most prone to skin infections among the options given due to their weakened immune system.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]
Explanation
A. Blood pressure:
Monitoring blood pressure is a crucial aspect of evaluating fluid resuscitation in burn patients. Adequate fluid resuscitation should help maintain stable blood pressure levels within an acceptable range. Hypotension (low blood pressure) can indicate inadequate fluid resuscitation, leading to poor tissue perfusion and organ function. On the other hand, hypertension (high blood pressure) may suggest fluid overload, which can lead to complications such as pulmonary edema. Therefore, regular monitoring of blood pressure helps assess the effectiveness of fluid resuscitation and guides adjustments in fluid administration rates.
B. Bowel sounds:
While bowel sounds are important indicators of gastrointestinal motility and function, they are not directly used to evaluate the success of fluid resuscitation in burn patients. Bowel sounds may be assessed for other reasons, such as postoperative recovery or gastrointestinal conditions, but they do not provide specific information about fluid resuscitation status or tissue perfusion.
C. Level of consciousness:
Assessing the client's level of consciousness is crucial during fluid resuscitation for burns. Changes in consciousness, such as confusion, lethargy, or altered mental status, can indicate inadequate tissue perfusion and oxygenation. A clear and responsive level of consciousness suggests adequate fluid resuscitation and perfusion to vital organs, while alterations in consciousness may prompt further evaluation and adjustment of fluid resuscitation strategies.
D. Urine output:
Monitoring urine output is a key parameter in evaluating fluid resuscitation in burn patients. Adequate urine output (0.5 to 1 mL/kg/hr in adults) indicates sufficient renal perfusion and function, suggesting effective fluid resuscitation. Decreased urine output or oliguria may indicate inadequate fluid resuscitation, renal impairment, or hypovolemia, requiring reassessment and potential adjustments in fluid administration rates or type of fluids used.
E. Platelet count:
Platelet count is an important component of the complete blood count (CBC) and is used to assess clotting function and risk of bleeding. However, platelet count is not specifically used to evaluate the success of fluid resuscitation in burn patients. While clotting parameters may be monitored in burn patients, including platelet count, they are not direct indicators of fluid resuscitation status or tissue perfusion. Other laboratory parameters, such as hemoglobin, hematocrit, electrolyte levels, and arterial blood gases, may be monitored to assess the effectiveness of fluid resuscitation.
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