A nurse recently hired to the preoperative area learns that certain patients are at higher risk for venous thromboembolism (VTE). Which patients are considered to be at high risk? (Select all that apply.)
Morbidly obese patient
A woman who smokes and takes oral contraceptives or smoke
Wheelchair-bound patient
Patient with a humerus fracture
Patient who underwent a prolonged surgical procedure
Correct Answer : A,B,E
A. Morbidly obese patient: Obesity is a known risk factor for VTE due to several reasons. Morbidly obese individuals often have impaired mobility, which can lead to venous stasis (sluggish blood flow in the veins). Additionally, obesity is associated with inflammation and changes in blood clotting factors, increasing the risk of developing blood clots in the veins.
B. A woman who smokes and takes oral contraceptives or smokes: Both smoking and oral contraceptive use are independent risk factors for VTE. Smoking can cause damage to blood vessels and alter blood clotting mechanisms, while oral contraceptives can increase the risk of blood clots due to hormonal changes.
C. Wheelchair-bound patient: While being wheelchair-bound alone may not always indicate a high risk for VTE, immobility is a significant risk factor for developing blood clots. Prolonged periods of immobility can lead to blood stasis in the veins, making wheelchair-bound patients susceptible to VTE, especially if other risk factors are present.
D. Patient with a humerus fracture: A humerus fracture on its own may not necessarily increase the risk of VTE significantly. However, if the fracture requires immobilization or surgery, especially if it affects the lower extremities or leads to prolonged immobility, the risk of VTE can increase due to decreased blood flow and stasis.
E. Patient who underwent a prolonged surgical procedure: Prolonged surgical procedures often involve anesthesia, immobility during surgery, and postoperative immobilization, all of which can contribute to venous stasis and increase the risk of developing VTE. Additionally, the surgical trauma itself can trigger inflammatory responses and alterations in blood clotting factors, further elevating the risk of blood clots.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Melanoma:
Melanoma is a type of skin cancer that arises from melanocytes, the cells that produce pigment (melanin) in the skin. Melanoma lesions are typically irregularly shaped, often asymmetrical, with varying shades of color (brown, black, tan, red, blue). They may have an uneven border and can evolve over time. Melanomas can be raised but are not typically described as indurated (firm) and shiny. They are also more commonly associated with changes in color, size, and shape.
B. Keloid:
A keloid is an abnormal overgrowth of scar tissue that extends beyond the boundaries of the original wound or incision site. Keloids are characterized by their raised appearance, firm or indurated texture, and shiny surface compared to the surrounding skin. They may also be darker than the surrounding skin due to increased collagen deposition. Keloids can develop months after an injury or surgery and are more common in individuals with darker skin tones, such as African Americans.
C. Nevus:
A nevus, commonly known as a mole or birthmark, is a benign growth of melanocytes or other skin cells. Nevus lesions can vary in appearance but are often flat or slightly raised, with a uniform color (brown, black, tan, or flesh-colored). They are usually not described as indurated or shiny. Nevus lesions can be present at birth (congenital nevus) or develop later in life (acquired nevus).
D. Angioma:
Angiomas are benign tumors that originate from blood vessels or lymphatic vessels. They can present as red or purplish raised lesions on the skin. Angiomas are typically not described as indurated or shiny. Common types of angiomas include cherry angiomas (small, red papules) and spider angiomas (red, spider-like lesions with central vessels).
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Prevents complications, such as meningitis or pneumonitis
While oral acyclovir can be effective in managing HSV infections and reducing the severity of symptoms, it is not primarily used to prevent complications such as meningitis or pneumonitis. These complications may occur in severe cases of HSV infections, but oral acyclovir's main goal is to manage outbreaks and reduce symptoms.
B. Decreases the probability of recurrent outbreaks
Oral acyclovir can help reduce the frequency of recurrent outbreaks in individuals with HSV infections. However, it does not completely eliminate the probability of recurrent outbreaks. Some individuals may still experience occasional outbreaks even with regular use of oral acyclovir. The medication is more focused on managing outbreaks when they occur rather than preventing them entirely.
C. Shortens the outbreak and lessens the severity of symptoms
This option is the correct choice. Oral acyclovir is effective in shortening the duration of HSV outbreaks and reducing the severity of symptoms such as pain, itching, and lesions. It works by inhibiting the replication of the virus, which helps in faster healing and symptom relief. However, it does not cure the infection or eliminate the virus from the body.
D. Eliminates the likelihood of spreading the infection to others
While oral acyclovir can help manage outbreaks and reduce viral shedding, it does not completely eliminate the risk of spreading the infection to others. It can reduce the likelihood of transmission during active outbreaks, but individuals with HSV can still shed the virus and be contagious even when they are not experiencing visible symptoms. Therefore, other precautions such as practicing safe sex and avoiding close contact during outbreaks are also important for preventing transmission.
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