A nurse recently hired to the preoperative area learns that certain patients are at higher risk for venous thromboembolism (VTE). Which patients are considered to be at high risk? (Select all that apply.)

Morbidly obese patient

A woman who smokes and takes oral contraceptives or smoke

Wheelchair-bound patient

Patient with a humerus fracture

Patient who underwent a prolonged surgical procedure

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : A,B,E

A. Morbidly obese patient: Obesity is a known risk factor for VTE due to several reasons. Morbidly obese individuals often have impaired mobility, which can lead to venous stasis (sluggish blood flow in the veins). Additionally, obesity is associated with inflammation and changes in blood clotting factors, increasing the risk of developing blood clots in the veins.

B. A woman who smokes and takes oral contraceptives or smokes: Both smoking and oral contraceptive use are independent risk factors for VTE. Smoking can cause damage to blood vessels and alter blood clotting mechanisms, while oral contraceptives can increase the risk of blood clots due to hormonal changes.

C. Wheelchair-bound patient: While being wheelchair-bound alone may not always indicate a high risk for VTE, immobility is a significant risk factor for developing blood clots. Prolonged periods of immobility can lead to blood stasis in the veins, making wheelchair-bound patients susceptible to VTE, especially if other risk factors are present.

D. Patient with a humerus fracture: A humerus fracture on its own may not necessarily increase the risk of VTE significantly. However, if the fracture requires immobilization or surgery, especially if it affects the lower extremities or leads to prolonged immobility, the risk of VTE can increase due to decreased blood flow and stasis.

E. Patient who underwent a prolonged surgical procedure: Prolonged surgical procedures often involve anesthesia, immobility during surgery, and postoperative immobilization, all of which can contribute to venous stasis and increase the risk of developing VTE. Additionally, the surgical trauma itself can trigger inflammatory responses and alterations in blood clotting factors, further elevating the risk of blood clots.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Diarrhea and vomiting for 36 hours:

Diarrhea and vomiting can lead to metabolic acidosis due to loss of bicarbonate and increased hydrogen ion concentration in the blood. However, the ABG values provided indicate respiratory alkalosis (high pH and low PaCO2), which is not consistent with metabolic acidosis caused by diarrhea and vomiting. Therefore, this choice does not correlate with the ABG values.

B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD):

COPD is a respiratory condition characterized by airflow limitation and increased airway resistance. It can lead to respiratory acidosis due to retention of carbon dioxide (PaCO2 levels would be elevated). The ABG values in the scenario show respiratory alkalosis (low PaCO2), which is the opposite of what would be expected in COPD. Therefore, this choice does not correlate with the ABG values provided.

C. Anxiety-induced hyperventilation:

Anxiety-induced hyperventilation is a common cause of respiratory alkalosis. During hyperventilation, there is excessive elimination of carbon dioxide (PaCO2 levels decrease), leading to an increase in pH (alkalosis). The ABG values in the scenario show a high pH (7.48) and low PaCO2 (28 mm Hg), consistent with respiratory alkalosis seen in hyperventilation due to anxiety.

D. Diabetic ketoacidosis and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD):

Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a metabolic condition characterized by hyperglycemia, ketosis, and metabolic acidosis (low pH and low bicarbonate levels). COPD, as mentioned earlier, can lead to respiratory acidosis due to retained carbon dioxide. Neither of these conditions correlates with the ABG values provided, which show respiratory alkalosis (high pH and low PaCO2). Therefore, this choice does not correlate with the ABG values.

A. A 60 year old client with gastritis B. A 20 year old client with closed tibia fracture C. A 55 year old client taking an ACE inhibitor D. A 35 year old client receiving chemotherapy

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. A 60-year-old client with gastritis:

Gastritis is inflammation of the stomach lining and typically does not directly increase the risk of skin infections. However, if the gastritis is due to an underlying condition that affects the immune system, such as an autoimmune disorder, the client may have a slightly higher risk of infections, including skin infections, compared to a healthy individual of the same age. Overall, gastritis alone is not a significant risk factor for skin infections compared to the other options.

B. A 20-year-old client with a closed tibia fracture:

A closed tibia fracture refers to a broken shinbone that does not break the skin. While fractures themselves do not necessarily increase the risk of skin infections, they can indirectly contribute to infection risk if there are complications such as open wounds, surgical procedures, or prolonged immobilization. In this case, because the fracture is closed and presumably not complicated by open wounds or surgery, this client is not significantly prone to skin infections compared to the other options.

C. A 55-year-old client taking an ACE inhibitor:

ACE (angiotensin-converting enzyme) inhibitors are medications commonly used to treat conditions like high blood pressure and heart failure. While these medications can cause side effects like a dry cough or skin rash in some individuals, they do not directly increase the risk of skin infections. Unless the client experiences a severe allergic reaction or develops a rash that becomes infected, the use of ACE inhibitors alone is not a major risk factor for skin infections compared to the other options.

D. A 35-year-old client receiving chemotherapy:

Chemotherapy is a treatment for cancer that works by targeting rapidly dividing cells, including cancer cells but also affecting some healthy cells like those in the bone marrow responsible for producing white blood cells. As a result, chemotherapy can significantly weaken the immune system, leading to a higher risk of infections, including skin infections. Patients undergoing chemotherapy are particularly susceptible to bacterial, fungal, and viral infections due to their compromised immune response. Therefore, the 35-year-old client receiving chemotherapy is the most prone to skin infections among the options given due to their weakened immune system.

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A nurse recently hired to the preoperative area learns that certain patients are at higher risk for venous thromboembolism (VTE). Which patients are considered to be at high risk? (Select all that apply.)

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse evaluates the following arterial blood gas values in a patient: pH 7.48, PaO 98 mm Hg, PaCO 28 mm Hg, and HCO - 22 mEq/L (22 mmol/L). Which patient condition does the nurse correlate with these results?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is caring for several clients. Which of the following clients is most prone to skin infections?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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