A nurse teaches a patient who is at risk for mild hypernatremia. Which statement does the nurse include in this patient's teaching?
"Bake or grill the meat rather than frying it."
“Check your radial pulse twice a day.”
"Read food labels to determine sodium content."
“Weigh yourself every morning and every night."
The Correct Answer is C
A. "Bake or grill the meat rather than frying it."
This statement is more related to reducing fat intake rather than managing sodium levels. While reducing fried foods can be beneficial for overall health, it doesn't directly address the issue of sodium intake, which is crucial in managing hypernatremia.
B. “Check your radial pulse twice a day.”
Checking the radial pulse is a method used to monitor heart rate and rhythm. It is not directly related to managing sodium levels or hypernatremia. Although monitoring vital signs is important in general health care, it is not specific to addressing mild hypernatremia.
C. "Read food labels to determine sodium content."
This statement is the correct choice. Managing sodium intake is a key component in managing hypernatremia. Reading food labels helps patients identify high-sodium foods and make choices that are lower in sodium content, which can be crucial in preventing or managing mild hypernatremia.
D. “Weigh yourself every morning and every night."
While regular weight monitoring can be important for certain health conditions, it is not directly related to managing mild hypernatremia. Weight changes may occur with fluid retention or loss, but monitoring sodium intake and hydration status is more directly relevant to managing hypernatremia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. A 60-year-old client with gastritis:
Gastritis is inflammation of the stomach lining and typically does not directly increase the risk of skin infections. However, if the gastritis is due to an underlying condition that affects the immune system, such as an autoimmune disorder, the client may have a slightly higher risk of infections, including skin infections, compared to a healthy individual of the same age. Overall, gastritis alone is not a significant risk factor for skin infections compared to the other options.
B. A 20-year-old client with a closed tibia fracture:
A closed tibia fracture refers to a broken shinbone that does not break the skin. While fractures themselves do not necessarily increase the risk of skin infections, they can indirectly contribute to infection risk if there are complications such as open wounds, surgical procedures, or prolonged immobilization. In this case, because the fracture is closed and presumably not complicated by open wounds or surgery, this client is not significantly prone to skin infections compared to the other options.
C. A 55-year-old client taking an ACE inhibitor:
ACE (angiotensin-converting enzyme) inhibitors are medications commonly used to treat conditions like high blood pressure and heart failure. While these medications can cause side effects like a dry cough or skin rash in some individuals, they do not directly increase the risk of skin infections. Unless the client experiences a severe allergic reaction or develops a rash that becomes infected, the use of ACE inhibitors alone is not a major risk factor for skin infections compared to the other options.
D. A 35-year-old client receiving chemotherapy:
Chemotherapy is a treatment for cancer that works by targeting rapidly dividing cells, including cancer cells but also affecting some healthy cells like those in the bone marrow responsible for producing white blood cells. As a result, chemotherapy can significantly weaken the immune system, leading to a higher risk of infections, including skin infections. Patients undergoing chemotherapy are particularly susceptible to bacterial, fungal, and viral infections due to their compromised immune response. Therefore, the 35-year-old client receiving chemotherapy is the most prone to skin infections among the options given due to their weakened immune system.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Excessive scarring:
Excessive scarring is not an example of a first-degree burn. It typically occurs in more severe burns that affect deeper layers of the skin, such as second-degree or third-degree burns. Second-degree burns extend into the dermis, while third-degree burns damage all layers of the skin and can lead to significant scarring. First-degree burns, on the other hand, only affect the outer layer of the skin (epidermis) and usually do not result in excessive scarring.
B. Blistering from flames:
Blistering from flames is more characteristic of a second-degree burn rather than a first-degree burn. Second-degree burns involve damage to both the epidermis and part of the dermis, which can result in blister formation. These burns are often caused by direct contact with flames, hot liquids, or steam.
C. Blackened dead skin:
Blackened dead skin is indicative of a third-degree burn, which is the most severe type of burn. Third-degree burns damage all layers of the skin, including the epidermis, dermis, and sometimes underlying tissues. The skin may appear charred or blackened, and these burns often require medical intervention, such as skin grafting, due to the extent of tissue damage.
D. A sunburn:
A sunburn is an example of a first-degree burn. It occurs due to overexposure to ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun, leading to redness, pain, and mild swelling of the skin. First-degree burns affect only the outer layer of the skin (epidermis) and typically heal within a few days without significant scarring or blistering. Applying soothing lotions, staying hydrated, and avoiding further sun exposure can help manage sunburns.
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