A nurse cares for a patient who has a deep wound that is being treated with a wet to-damp (used to be dry) dressing. Which intervention would the nurse include in this patient’s plan of care?
Change the dressing when it is saturated.
Assess the wound bed once a day.
Contact the provider when the dressing leaks.
Change the dressing every 6 hours.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Change the dressing when it is saturated:
This intervention is the most appropriate for managing a deep wound with a wet to-damp dressing. Wet to-damp dressings are designed to maintain a moist environment conducive to wound healing. Changing the dressing when it becomes saturated with wound exudate helps prevent excessive moisture accumulation, which can lead to skin maceration and potential infection. It ensures that the wound bed remains in an optimal healing environment and reduces the risk of complications.
B. Assess the wound bed once a day:
Assessing the wound bed is an essential part of wound care, as it allows the nurse to monitor healing progress, assess for signs of infection, and evaluate the effectiveness of the chosen dressing. However, the frequency of wound bed assessment may vary depending on the specific patient's needs and the type of dressing being used. While daily assessment is generally recommended, it does not directly dictate the timing of dressing changes for wet to-damp dressings, which are primarily changed based on saturation levels.
C. Contact the provider when the dressing leaks:
Contacting the provider when the dressing leaks or when there are concerns or complications is an important step in patient care. Leaking dressings can indicate issues with the dressing application, excessive wound exudate, or potential complications such as infection. It's crucial to inform the provider promptly so that appropriate interventions can be implemented, but this instruction is more reactive and does not specifically address the timing of dressing changes.
D. Change the dressing every 6 hours:
Changing the dressing every 6 hours is not typically recommended for wet to-damp dressings unless specifically indicated based on the patient's condition and the amount of wound exudate. Frequent dressing changes can disrupt the healing process, cause unnecessary trauma to the wound bed, and increase the risk of infection. Dressing change frequency should be based on the assessment of wound exudate and the dressing's ability to maintain a moist environment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Stage III pressure injury
Stage III pressure injuries involve full-thickness skin loss, extending into the subcutaneous tissue but not through the fascia. These wounds typically present as deep craters and may involve undermining or tunneling. Non-blanchable erythema alone without visible skin loss is not characteristic of a Stage III pressure injury.
B. Stage IV pressure injury
Stage IV pressure injuries are the most severe and involve full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle. These wounds often have extensive tissue damage and can be difficult to manage. Again, non-blanchable erythema without visible skin loss is not indicative of a Stage IV pressure injury.
C. Stage II pressure injury
Stage II pressure injuries involve partial-thickness skin loss with damage to the epidermis and possibly the dermis. These wounds often present as shallow open ulcers or blisters and may have characteristics such as intact or ruptured blisters. While Stage II injuries can present with erythema, non-blanchable erythema specifically indicates a Stage I injury.
D. Stage I pressure injury
Stage I pressure injuries are the earliest stage and involve non-blanchable erythema of intact skin. The skin may be warmer or cooler than surrounding tissue and may have changes in sensation. There is no visible skin loss at this stage, but the area is at risk for further injury if pressure is not relieved. Therefore, non-blanchable erythema on the heels most likely indicates a Stage I pressure injury.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Cardiac arrest related to septic shock:
Septic shock can occur in burn patients due to the breakdown of the skin barrier, which allows pathogens to enter the bloodstream and cause systemic infection. However, while septic shock is a serious complication of burn injuries, it is not the primary cause of death in the emergent phase. Septic shock can lead to multiple organ failure and contribute to mortality, but it is often a later complication rather than an immediate cause in the emergent phase.
B. Infection:
Infections are a significant concern in burn patients, especially as the burn wound provides an ideal environment for bacterial growth. However, infections typically contribute more significantly to mortality in the later phases of burn care rather than in the emergent phase. In the emergent phase, hypovolemic shock and other immediate complications have a greater impact on mortality.
C. Adrenal failure:
Adrenal failure, specifically acute adrenal insufficiency or Addisonian crisis, can occur in burn patients due to the stress response and corticosteroid depletion. While adrenal insufficiency is a concern in severe burn cases, it is not the primary cause of death in the emergent phase requiring referral to a burn center.
D. Hypovolemic shock and renal failure:
Hypovolemic shock is a critical concern in the emergent phase of burn trauma because burns can lead to significant fluid loss and electrolyte imbalances. Hypovolemic shock results from insufficient circulating blood volume, leading to inadequate perfusion of organs and tissues, which can be life-threatening. Additionally, renal failure can develop due to hypovolemia, decreased cardiac output, and the release of inflammatory mediators, leading to acute kidney injury (AKI). Hypovolemic shock and subsequent renal failure are major contributors to mortality in the emergent phase of burn trauma, necessitating prompt referral to a burn center for specialized care.
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