A nurse evaluates the following arterial blood gas values in a patient: pH 7.48, PaO 98 mm Hg, PaCO 28 mm Hg, and HCO - 22 mEq/L (22 mmol/L). Which patient condition does the nurse correlate with these results?
Diarrhea and vomiting for 36 hours
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
Anxiety-induced hyperventilation
Diabetic ketoacidosis and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
The Correct Answer is C
A. Diarrhea and vomiting for 36 hours:
Diarrhea and vomiting can lead to metabolic acidosis due to loss of bicarbonate and increased hydrogen ion concentration in the blood. However, the ABG values provided indicate respiratory alkalosis (high pH and low PaCO2), which is not consistent with metabolic acidosis caused by diarrhea and vomiting. Therefore, this choice does not correlate with the ABG values.
B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD):
COPD is a respiratory condition characterized by airflow limitation and increased airway resistance. It can lead to respiratory acidosis due to retention of carbon dioxide (PaCO2 levels would be elevated). The ABG values in the scenario show respiratory alkalosis (low PaCO2), which is the opposite of what would be expected in COPD. Therefore, this choice does not correlate with the ABG values provided.
C. Anxiety-induced hyperventilation:
Anxiety-induced hyperventilation is a common cause of respiratory alkalosis. During hyperventilation, there is excessive elimination of carbon dioxide (PaCO2 levels decrease), leading to an increase in pH (alkalosis). The ABG values in the scenario show a high pH (7.48) and low PaCO2 (28 mm Hg), consistent with respiratory alkalosis seen in hyperventilation due to anxiety.
D. Diabetic ketoacidosis and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD):
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a metabolic condition characterized by hyperglycemia, ketosis, and metabolic acidosis (low pH and low bicarbonate levels). COPD, as mentioned earlier, can lead to respiratory acidosis due to retained carbon dioxide. Neither of these conditions correlates with the ABG values provided, which show respiratory alkalosis (high pH and low PaCO2). Therefore, this choice does not correlate with the ABG values.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Prevents complications, such as meningitis or pneumonitis
While oral acyclovir can be effective in managing HSV infections and reducing the severity of symptoms, it is not primarily used to prevent complications such as meningitis or pneumonitis. These complications may occur in severe cases of HSV infections, but oral acyclovir's main goal is to manage outbreaks and reduce symptoms.
B. Decreases the probability of recurrent outbreaks
Oral acyclovir can help reduce the frequency of recurrent outbreaks in individuals with HSV infections. However, it does not completely eliminate the probability of recurrent outbreaks. Some individuals may still experience occasional outbreaks even with regular use of oral acyclovir. The medication is more focused on managing outbreaks when they occur rather than preventing them entirely.
C. Shortens the outbreak and lessens the severity of symptoms
This option is the correct choice. Oral acyclovir is effective in shortening the duration of HSV outbreaks and reducing the severity of symptoms such as pain, itching, and lesions. It works by inhibiting the replication of the virus, which helps in faster healing and symptom relief. However, it does not cure the infection or eliminate the virus from the body.
D. Eliminates the likelihood of spreading the infection to others
While oral acyclovir can help manage outbreaks and reduce viral shedding, it does not completely eliminate the risk of spreading the infection to others. It can reduce the likelihood of transmission during active outbreaks, but individuals with HSV can still shed the virus and be contagious even when they are not experiencing visible symptoms. Therefore, other precautions such as practicing safe sex and avoiding close contact during outbreaks are also important for preventing transmission.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Keeping the wound clean and non-infected: When caring for a client with a pressure injury, the priority in the plan of care is to keep the wound clean and prevent infection. This involves regular wound assessment, proper wound cleaning techniques, application of appropriate dressings, and monitoring for signs of infection such as increased redness, swelling, warmth, or drainage. Preventing infection is crucial for promoting healing and preventing complications.
B. Application of a negative pressure wound care device: While negative pressure wound therapy (NPWT) can be beneficial in promoting wound healing, it may not be the immediate priority unless specifically indicated by the healthcare provider based on the stage and characteristics of the pressure injury. Keeping the wound clean and preventing infection take precedence over NPWT in the initial plan of care.
C. Client education on wound prevention: While client education is important for preventing future pressure injuries, it is not the immediate priority when caring for an existing pressure injury. The focus initially should be on managing the current wound to promote healing and prevent complications.
D. Promoting a high carbohydrate, low protein diet: Nutritional interventions are important in wound healing, but promoting a specific diet is not the immediate priority in the plan of care for a pressure injury. Providing adequate nutrition and addressing any nutritional deficiencies may be part of the overall plan, but it is secondary to keeping the wound clean and preventing infection.
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