A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is postoperative and has a respiratory rate of 7/min. The arteriaI blood gas (ABG) values include:
- pH 7.22
- PaCO2 68 mm Hg
- Base excess -2
- PaO2 78 mm Hg
- Oxygen saturation 80%
- Bicarbonate 28 mEq/L
Which of the following interpretations of the ABG values should the nurse make7
Metabolic acidosis
Respiratory acidosis
Respiratory alkalosis
Metabolic alkalosis
The Correct Answer is B
A. Metabolic acidosis:
Metabolic acidosis is characterized by a low pH (<7.35) and a low bicarbonate level (<22 mEq/L) due to an excess of acids in the body or a loss of bicarbonate. However, in the given ABG values, the pH is low (7.22), but the bicarbonate level is elevated (28 mEq/L), which does not align with metabolic acidosis. Therefore, metabolic acidosis is not the correct interpretation in this case.
B. Respiratory acidosis:
Respiratory acidosis occurs when there is inadequate removal of carbon dioxide (CO2) by the lungs, leading to an accumulation of CO2 in the blood and a decrease in pH. In the ABG values provided, the pH is low (7.22), and the PaCO2 is elevated (68 mm Hg), indicating respiratory acidosis as the primary disturbance. This interpretation is supported by the elevated PaCO2 and the low pH, making it the correct choice based on the given data.
C. Respiratory alkalosis:
Respiratory alkalosis results from hyperventilation, leading to excessive elimination of CO2 and a decrease in PaCO2 levels. However, in the ABG values presented, the PaCO2 is elevated (68 mm Hg), which contradicts the expected decrease seen in respiratory alkalosis. Therefore, respiratory alkalosis is not the correct interpretation of the ABG values in this case.
D. Metabolic alkalosis:
Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by a high pH (>7.45) and a high bicarbonate level (>26 mEq/L) due to excessive loss of acids or an increase in bicarbonate levels. However, in the ABG values provided, the pH is low (7.22), and the bicarbonate level is elevated (28 mEq/L), which is not consistent with metabolic alkalosis. Therefore, metabolic alkalosis is not the correct interpretation based on the given data.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. “All preoperative patients get this medication.” This statement is too broad and not entirely accurate. While many preoperative patients do receive famotidine (Pepcid), it’s not a standard for all. Medications are prescribed based on individual patient needs and medical history.
B. “The physician prescribed this medication for you.” While this is technically true, it doesn’t provide the patient with an understanding of why the medication is necessary. As a nurse, part of your role is to educate patients about their medications.
C. “It helps prevent ulcers from the stress of the surgery.” This is the correct answer. Famotidine (Pepcid) is given to decrease the amount of acid produced in the stomach, which can help prevent stress ulcers that can occur due to the physical stress of surgery.
D. “Since you don’t have ulcers, I will have to ask.” This statement suggests uncertainty and a lack of knowledge about the medication’s purpose. It’s important for healthcare professionals to understand the medications they administer and be able to explain them to patients.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. A 60-year-old client with gastritis:
Gastritis is inflammation of the stomach lining and typically does not directly increase the risk of skin infections. However, if the gastritis is due to an underlying condition that affects the immune system, such as an autoimmune disorder, the client may have a slightly higher risk of infections, including skin infections, compared to a healthy individual of the same age. Overall, gastritis alone is not a significant risk factor for skin infections compared to the other options.
B. A 20-year-old client with a closed tibia fracture:
A closed tibia fracture refers to a broken shinbone that does not break the skin. While fractures themselves do not necessarily increase the risk of skin infections, they can indirectly contribute to infection risk if there are complications such as open wounds, surgical procedures, or prolonged immobilization. In this case, because the fracture is closed and presumably not complicated by open wounds or surgery, this client is not significantly prone to skin infections compared to the other options.
C. A 55-year-old client taking an ACE inhibitor:
ACE (angiotensin-converting enzyme) inhibitors are medications commonly used to treat conditions like high blood pressure and heart failure. While these medications can cause side effects like a dry cough or skin rash in some individuals, they do not directly increase the risk of skin infections. Unless the client experiences a severe allergic reaction or develops a rash that becomes infected, the use of ACE inhibitors alone is not a major risk factor for skin infections compared to the other options.
D. A 35-year-old client receiving chemotherapy:
Chemotherapy is a treatment for cancer that works by targeting rapidly dividing cells, including cancer cells but also affecting some healthy cells like those in the bone marrow responsible for producing white blood cells. As a result, chemotherapy can significantly weaken the immune system, leading to a higher risk of infections, including skin infections. Patients undergoing chemotherapy are particularly susceptible to bacterial, fungal, and viral infections due to their compromised immune response. Therefore, the 35-year-old client receiving chemotherapy is the most prone to skin infections among the options given due to their weakened immune system.
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