Which people have the greatest risk for serious complications secondary to herpes zoster infection? Select all that apply.
Healthy middle-aged adult who never had chickenpox
Older adult who lakes large doses of prednisone for a chronic condition
Middle-aged adult who just started taking chemotherapy
Nurse who recently received the first dose of varicella vaccine
Young adult who is positive for the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV):
Correct Answer : B,C,E
A. Healthy middle-aged adult who never had chickenpox:
This individual has not had chickenpox, which means they are susceptible to varicella-zoster virus (VZV) infection. If they contract herpes zoster (shingles), they are at risk for complications, although typically healthy adults are less likely to experience severe complications compared to immunocompromised individuals or older adults.
B. Older adult who takes large doses of prednisone for a chronic condition:
Chronic corticosteroid use, such as prednisone, can suppress the immune system and increase the risk of herpes zoster infection. Additionally, if herpes zoster develops in an older adult, they are at higher risk for complications such as postherpetic neuralgia (persistent nerve pain), bacterial superinfection of the rash, and dissemination of the virus.
C. Middle-aged adult who just started taking chemotherapy:
Chemotherapy suppresses the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections. If a person undergoing chemotherapy develops herpes zoster, they are at increased risk for serious complications due to their weakened immune response.
D. Nurse who recently received the first dose of varicella vaccine:
The varicella vaccine is designed to prevent chickenpox and reduce the risk of herpes zoster (shingles) in vaccinated individuals. Therefore, a nurse who received the varicella vaccine is less likely to experience serious complications from herpes zoster infection compared to those who are unvaccinated.
E. Young adult who is positive for the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV):
Individuals with HIV have a weakened immune system, increasing their susceptibility to infections, including herpes zoster. Moreover, herpes zoster in HIV-positive individuals can be more severe, prolonged, and may lead to complications such as disseminated herpes zoster, involving multiple organs and potentially becoming life-threatening.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Increase the effectiveness of the skin graft:
Debridement can indeed increase the effectiveness of a skin graft by preparing a clean, viable wound bed for grafting. Removing dead tissue and debris helps the skin graft adhere to healthy tissue and promotes successful graft take. However, this is not the primary purpose of debridement.
B. Promote movement in the affected area:
While debridement can indirectly contribute to promoting movement by improving wound healing and reducing pain, the primary purpose of debridement is not to promote movement in the affected area.
C. Prevent infection and promote healing:
This statement accurately reflects the primary purpose of debridement. By removing nonviable tissue, debris, and foreign material from the wound, debridement helps prevent infection by reducing the bacterial load and creating an environment conducive to healing. It also promotes granulation tissue formation and wound contraction, which are essential for wound healing.
D. Promote suppuration of the wound:
Suppuration refers to the formation and discharge of pus from a wound, often indicating infection. Debridement aims to remove necrotic tissue and prevent infection, so promoting suppuration is not a desired outcome of debridement.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Melanoma:
Melanoma is a type of skin cancer that arises from melanocytes, the cells that produce pigment (melanin) in the skin. Melanoma lesions are typically irregularly shaped, often asymmetrical, with varying shades of color (brown, black, tan, red, blue). They may have an uneven border and can evolve over time. Melanomas can be raised but are not typically described as indurated (firm) and shiny. They are also more commonly associated with changes in color, size, and shape.
B. Keloid:
A keloid is an abnormal overgrowth of scar tissue that extends beyond the boundaries of the original wound or incision site. Keloids are characterized by their raised appearance, firm or indurated texture, and shiny surface compared to the surrounding skin. They may also be darker than the surrounding skin due to increased collagen deposition. Keloids can develop months after an injury or surgery and are more common in individuals with darker skin tones, such as African Americans.
C. Nevus:
A nevus, commonly known as a mole or birthmark, is a benign growth of melanocytes or other skin cells. Nevus lesions can vary in appearance but are often flat or slightly raised, with a uniform color (brown, black, tan, or flesh-colored). They are usually not described as indurated or shiny. Nevus lesions can be present at birth (congenital nevus) or develop later in life (acquired nevus).
D. Angioma:
Angiomas are benign tumors that originate from blood vessels or lymphatic vessels. They can present as red or purplish raised lesions on the skin. Angiomas are typically not described as indurated or shiny. Common types of angiomas include cherry angiomas (small, red papules) and spider angiomas (red, spider-like lesions with central vessels).
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