A nurse is caring for a client that is immobile. The nurse recognizes that the appearance of non-blanchable erythema on the heels most likely indicates which of the following stages of pressure injuries?
Stage III pressure injury
Stage IV pressure injury
Stage II pressure injury
Stage I pressure injury
The Correct Answer is D
A. Stage III pressure injury
Stage III pressure injuries involve full-thickness skin loss, extending into the subcutaneous tissue but not through the fascia. These wounds typically present as deep craters and may involve undermining or tunneling. Non-blanchable erythema alone without visible skin loss is not characteristic of a Stage III pressure injury.
B. Stage IV pressure injury
Stage IV pressure injuries are the most severe and involve full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle. These wounds often have extensive tissue damage and can be difficult to manage. Again, non-blanchable erythema without visible skin loss is not indicative of a Stage IV pressure injury.
C. Stage II pressure injury
Stage II pressure injuries involve partial-thickness skin loss with damage to the epidermis and possibly the dermis. These wounds often present as shallow open ulcers or blisters and may have characteristics such as intact or ruptured blisters. While Stage II injuries can present with erythema, non-blanchable erythema specifically indicates a Stage I injury.
D. Stage I pressure injury
Stage I pressure injuries are the earliest stage and involve non-blanchable erythema of intact skin. The skin may be warmer or cooler than surrounding tissue and may have changes in sensation. There is no visible skin loss at this stage, but the area is at risk for further injury if pressure is not relieved. Therefore, non-blanchable erythema on the heels most likely indicates a Stage I pressure injury.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Body mass index (BMI) of 19:
A BMI of 19 falls within the normal weight range. While obesity (high BMI) is a known risk factor for surgical complications, including SSIs, having a lower BMI (underweight) like 19 may not directly increase the risk of SSIs. However, extreme malnutrition or low BMI due to underlying health conditions could potentially impact wound healing and immune function, indirectly contributing to infection risk.
B. History of deep vein thrombosis (DVT):
A history of deep vein thrombosis is a risk factor for surgical complications, including SSIs. Patients with a history of DVT may have impaired circulation or underlying vascular issues, which can affect tissue perfusion, wound healing, and increase the risk of infections.
C. Aged 55 years old:
Age is a risk factor for surgical complications, including SSIs. Older adults, typically defined as those aged 65 and above, may have reduced immune function, slower wound healing, and underlying health conditions that contribute to infection risk. While 55 years old is not considered advanced age in terms of surgical risk, older age in general is associated with a higher risk of complications.
D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus:
Type 2 diabetes mellitus is a significant risk factor for SSIs. Diabetes can impair immune function, delay wound healing, and increase susceptibility to infections. Poorly controlled blood sugar levels in diabetic patients can further exacerbate the risk of SSIs post-surgery.
Correct Answer is ["A","D","E"]
Explanation
A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which is a potential complication of inhibiting aldosterone secretion and release. Aldosterone plays a key role in potassium regulation in the body by promoting potassium excretion in the kidneys. When aldosterone secretion is inhibited, potassium excretion decreases, leading to an accumulation of potassium in the bloodstream and resulting in hypokalemia. Symptoms of hypokalemia may include muscle weakness, cramping, irregular heartbeat, and fatigue.
B. Urine output of 1,200 mL in the last 2 hours:
This option does not directly relate to complications of inhibiting aldosterone secretion. A urine output of 1,200 mL in the last 2 hours indicates adequate urine production, which is generally a positive sign. However, in the context of inhibiting aldosterone secretion, the nurse would be more concerned about decreased urine output due to potential renal effects.
C. Blood osmolality of 250 mOsm/kg (250 mmol/kg):
Blood osmolality within the normal range (usually around 275-295 mOsm/kg) is not directly associated with complications of inhibiting aldosterone secretion. Blood osmolality reflects the concentration of solutes in the blood and is regulated by various factors, including water balance, electrolyte levels, and hormonal regulation. Inhibiting aldosterone secretion primarily affects electrolyte balance rather than blood osmolality.
D. Urine output of 25 mL/hr:
A urine output of 25 mL/hr is considered low and may indicate decreased renal perfusion or impaired kidney function. Inhibiting aldosterone secretion can affect renal function and urine output, leading to decreased urine production. Reduced urine output can contribute to fluid and electrolyte imbalances and may be a concern in patients with inhibited aldosterone secretion.
E. Serum potassium level of 5.4 mEq/L:
A serum potassium level of 5.4 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which is another potential complication of inhibiting aldosterone secretion. Aldosterone helps regulate potassium levels by promoting potassium excretion in the kidneys. When aldosterone secretion is inhibited, potassium excretion decreases, leading to an accumulation of potassium in the bloodstream and resulting in hyperkalemia. Symptoms of hyperkalemia may include muscle weakness, irregular heartbeat, nausea, and numbness or tingling.
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