After teaching a patient who is at risk for the formation of pressure ulcers, a nurse assesses the patients understanding. Which dietary choice by the patient indicates a good understanding of the teaching?

High-protein diet with vitamins and mineral supplements

Low-fat diet with whole grains and cereals and vitamin supplements

Vegetarian diet with nutritional supplements and fish oil capsules

low cholesterol, high-fiber, low-carbohydrate diet

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. High-protein diet with vitamins and mineral supplements:

This choice indicates a good understanding of preventing pressure ulcers. High-protein diets are beneficial for tissue repair and wound healing. Adequate protein intake supports collagen synthesis, which is essential for maintaining skin integrity and healing wounds. Additionally, vitamins and mineral supplements can contribute to overall nutritional status and support tissue health.

B. Low-fat diet with whole grains and cereals and vitamin supplements:

While a low-fat diet and whole grains are generally healthy choices, they may not specifically address the needs of a patient at risk for pressure ulcers. Fat is important for skin health, and whole grains can contribute to overall nutrition, but protein and specific vitamins and minerals are more directly related to tissue repair and wound healing.

C. Vegetarian diet with nutritional supplements and fish oil capsules:

A vegetarian diet can be healthy, but it requires careful planning to ensure adequate protein intake, especially for tissue repair and wound healing. Nutritional supplements may help fill nutrient gaps, but specific attention to protein sources is crucial for preventing pressure ulcers. Fish oil capsules can provide omega-3 fatty acids, which may have some benefits for skin health.

D. Low cholesterol, high-fiber, low-carbohydrate diet:

This diet choice focuses more on cardiovascular health and weight management rather than addressing the needs of a patient at risk for pressure ulcers. While a balanced diet with adequate fiber can support overall health, protein intake and specific vitamins and minerals are more critical for skin integrity and wound healing.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is ["B","C","E"]

Explanation

A. Healthy middle-aged adult who never had chickenpox:

This individual has not had chickenpox, which means they are susceptible to varicella-zoster virus (VZV) infection. If they contract herpes zoster (shingles), they are at risk for complications, although typically healthy adults are less likely to experience severe complications compared to immunocompromised individuals or older adults.

B. Older adult who takes large doses of prednisone for a chronic condition:

Chronic corticosteroid use, such as prednisone, can suppress the immune system and increase the risk of herpes zoster infection. Additionally, if herpes zoster develops in an older adult, they are at higher risk for complications such as postherpetic neuralgia (persistent nerve pain), bacterial superinfection of the rash, and dissemination of the virus.

C. Middle-aged adult who just started taking chemotherapy:

Chemotherapy suppresses the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections. If a person undergoing chemotherapy develops herpes zoster, they are at increased risk for serious complications due to their weakened immune response.

D. Nurse who recently received the first dose of varicella vaccine:

The varicella vaccine is designed to prevent chickenpox and reduce the risk of herpes zoster (shingles) in vaccinated individuals. Therefore, a nurse who received the varicella vaccine is less likely to experience serious complications from herpes zoster infection compared to those who are unvaccinated.

E. Young adult who is positive for the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV):

Individuals with HIV have a weakened immune system, increasing their susceptibility to infections, including herpes zoster. Moreover, herpes zoster in HIV-positive individuals can be more severe, prolonged, and may lead to complications such as disseminated herpes zoster, involving multiple organs and potentially becoming life-threatening.

A. Serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L B. Urine output of 1 200 mL in the last 2 hours C. Blood osmolality of 250 mOsm/kg (250 mmol/kg) D. Urine output of 25 mL/hr E. Serum potassium level of 5.4 mEq/L:

Correct Answer is ["A","D","E"]

Explanation

A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which is a potential complication of inhibiting aldosterone secretion and release. Aldosterone plays a key role in potassium regulation in the body by promoting potassium excretion in the kidneys. When aldosterone secretion is inhibited, potassium excretion decreases, leading to an accumulation of potassium in the bloodstream and resulting in hypokalemia. Symptoms of hypokalemia may include muscle weakness, cramping, irregular heartbeat, and fatigue.

B. Urine output of 1,200 mL in the last 2 hours:

This option does not directly relate to complications of inhibiting aldosterone secretion. A urine output of 1,200 mL in the last 2 hours indicates adequate urine production, which is generally a positive sign. However, in the context of inhibiting aldosterone secretion, the nurse would be more concerned about decreased urine output due to potential renal effects.

C. Blood osmolality of 250 mOsm/kg (250 mmol/kg):

Blood osmolality within the normal range (usually around 275-295 mOsm/kg) is not directly associated with complications of inhibiting aldosterone secretion. Blood osmolality reflects the concentration of solutes in the blood and is regulated by various factors, including water balance, electrolyte levels, and hormonal regulation. Inhibiting aldosterone secretion primarily affects electrolyte balance rather than blood osmolality.

D. Urine output of 25 mL/hr:

A urine output of 25 mL/hr is considered low and may indicate decreased renal perfusion or impaired kidney function. Inhibiting aldosterone secretion can affect renal function and urine output, leading to decreased urine production. Reduced urine output can contribute to fluid and electrolyte imbalances and may be a concern in patients with inhibited aldosterone secretion.

E. Serum potassium level of 5.4 mEq/L:

A serum potassium level of 5.4 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which is another potential complication of inhibiting aldosterone secretion. Aldosterone helps regulate potassium levels by promoting potassium excretion in the kidneys. When aldosterone secretion is inhibited, potassium excretion decreases, leading to an accumulation of potassium in the bloodstream and resulting in hyperkalemia. Symptoms of hyperkalemia may include muscle weakness, irregular heartbeat, nausea, and numbness or tingling.

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After teaching a patient who is at risk for the formation of pressure ulcers, a nurse assesses the patients understanding. Which dietary choice by the patient indicates a good understanding of the teaching?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Which people have the greatest risk for serious complications secondary to herpes zoster infection? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer is ["B","C","E"]

Explanation

A nurse assesses a patient who is prescribed a medication that inhibits aldosterone secretion and release. For which potential complications will the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer is ["A","D","E"]

Explanation

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