What would be considered early signs/symptoms of pressure injury (Stage 1)?
Intact skin with nonblanchable redness, painful,warm, soft localized area over a bony prominence
Shallow, open, shiny, dry injury, pink-red wound bed without sloughing or bruising
Full-thickness tissue loss, slough and black eschar in wound bed with undermining and tunneling
Full-thickness tissue loss, subcutaneous fat visible, possible undermining and tunneling
The Correct Answer is A
A. Intact skin with nonblanchable redness, painful, warm, soft localized area over a bony prominence
Stage 1 pressure injuries are characterized by intact skin with nonblanchable redness over a localized area, typically over a bony prominence like the sacrum, heel, or elbow. The skin may feel painful, warm, and soft to the touch. Nonblanchable redness means that when pressure is applied to the area, the redness does not fade or blanch (turn white). This stage indicates that tissue damage has occurred, but the skin is still intact.
B. Shallow, open, shiny, dry injury, pink-red wound bed without sloughing or bruising: This description is more indicative of a Stage 2 pressure injury, which involves partial-thickness skin loss with an intact or ruptured blister. The wound bed is usually pink or red, and there is no sloughing or bruising.
C. Full-thickness tissue loss, slough and black eschar in wound bed with undermining and tunneling: This description corresponds to a Stage 3 or Stage 4 pressure injury. Stage 3 involves full-thickness tissue loss with visible subcutaneous fat but no bone, tendon, or muscle exposed. Stage 4 involves extensive tissue loss with exposure of bone, tendon, or muscle. Both stages may include slough (yellow or white tissue) and black eschar (hard, necrotic tissue), along with undermining (tissue destruction under intact skin edges) and tunneling (narrow passageways extending from the wound).
D. Full-thickness tissue loss, subcutaneous fat visible, possible undermining and tunneling: This description also corresponds to a Stage 3 pressure injury, as it involves full-thickness tissue loss with visible subcutaneous fat. The mention of possible undermining and tunneling further suggests a Stage 3 pressure injury.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Prevents complications, such as meningitis or pneumonitis
While oral acyclovir can be effective in managing HSV infections and reducing the severity of symptoms, it is not primarily used to prevent complications such as meningitis or pneumonitis. These complications may occur in severe cases of HSV infections, but oral acyclovir's main goal is to manage outbreaks and reduce symptoms.
B. Decreases the probability of recurrent outbreaks
Oral acyclovir can help reduce the frequency of recurrent outbreaks in individuals with HSV infections. However, it does not completely eliminate the probability of recurrent outbreaks. Some individuals may still experience occasional outbreaks even with regular use of oral acyclovir. The medication is more focused on managing outbreaks when they occur rather than preventing them entirely.
C. Shortens the outbreak and lessens the severity of symptoms
This option is the correct choice. Oral acyclovir is effective in shortening the duration of HSV outbreaks and reducing the severity of symptoms such as pain, itching, and lesions. It works by inhibiting the replication of the virus, which helps in faster healing and symptom relief. However, it does not cure the infection or eliminate the virus from the body.
D. Eliminates the likelihood of spreading the infection to others
While oral acyclovir can help manage outbreaks and reduce viral shedding, it does not completely eliminate the risk of spreading the infection to others. It can reduce the likelihood of transmission during active outbreaks, but individuals with HSV can still shed the virus and be contagious even when they are not experiencing visible symptoms. Therefore, other precautions such as practicing safe sex and avoiding close contact during outbreaks are also important for preventing transmission.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Urine output is greater than 0.5 mL/kg/hr
During the fluid resuscitation phase of burn management, one of the primary goals is to maintain adequate tissue perfusion and organ function by ensuring sufficient fluid intake. The best method for assessing the results of fluid resuscitation is by monitoring urine output. A urine output of greater than 0.5 mL/kg/hr is indicative of adequate renal perfusion and kidney function, suggesting that fluid resuscitation is effective in maintaining tissue perfusion and preventing complications such as acute kidney injury.
B. Serum hemoglobin is 11 gm/dL
Serum hemoglobin levels can be affected by various factors, including fluid resuscitation, blood loss, and other medical conditions. While monitoring hemoglobin levels is important in overall patient assessment, it is not the best method specifically for assessing the results of fluid resuscitation during the initial phase of burn management.
C. Breath sounds are clear bilaterally
Clear bilateral breath sounds indicate adequate lung function and ventilation but may not directly reflect the effectiveness of fluid resuscitation in maintaining tissue perfusion. Lung sounds can be influenced by factors such as lung injury from smoke inhalation or mechanical ventilation settings, which may not correlate directly with fluid resuscitation outcomes.
D. Heart rate is 122/min
Heart rate can be influenced by various factors such as pain, stress, medications, and underlying medical conditions. While monitoring heart rate is important in assessing patient status, it is not the most reliable method for specifically evaluating the results of fluid resuscitation during the fluid resuscitation phase of burn management.
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