A nurse is caring for a client during the fluid resuscitation phase of burn management. Which of the following is the best method for assessing the results of the fluid resuscitation?
Urine output is greater than 0.5 mL/kg/hr
Serum hemoglobin is 11 gm/dL
Breath sounds are clear bilaterally
Heart rate is 122/min
The Correct Answer is A
A. Urine output is greater than 0.5 mL/kg/hr
During the fluid resuscitation phase of burn management, one of the primary goals is to maintain adequate tissue perfusion and organ function by ensuring sufficient fluid intake. The best method for assessing the results of fluid resuscitation is by monitoring urine output. A urine output of greater than 0.5 mL/kg/hr is indicative of adequate renal perfusion and kidney function, suggesting that fluid resuscitation is effective in maintaining tissue perfusion and preventing complications such as acute kidney injury.
B. Serum hemoglobin is 11 gm/dL
Serum hemoglobin levels can be affected by various factors, including fluid resuscitation, blood loss, and other medical conditions. While monitoring hemoglobin levels is important in overall patient assessment, it is not the best method specifically for assessing the results of fluid resuscitation during the initial phase of burn management.
C. Breath sounds are clear bilaterally
Clear bilateral breath sounds indicate adequate lung function and ventilation but may not directly reflect the effectiveness of fluid resuscitation in maintaining tissue perfusion. Lung sounds can be influenced by factors such as lung injury from smoke inhalation or mechanical ventilation settings, which may not correlate directly with fluid resuscitation outcomes.
D. Heart rate is 122/min
Heart rate can be influenced by various factors such as pain, stress, medications, and underlying medical conditions. While monitoring heart rate is important in assessing patient status, it is not the most reliable method for specifically evaluating the results of fluid resuscitation during the fluid resuscitation phase of burn management.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Increase the effectiveness of the skin graft:
Debridement can indeed increase the effectiveness of a skin graft by preparing a clean, viable wound bed for grafting. Removing dead tissue and debris helps the skin graft adhere to healthy tissue and promotes successful graft take. However, this is not the primary purpose of debridement.
B. Promote movement in the affected area:
While debridement can indirectly contribute to promoting movement by improving wound healing and reducing pain, the primary purpose of debridement is not to promote movement in the affected area.
C. Prevent infection and promote healing:
This statement accurately reflects the primary purpose of debridement. By removing nonviable tissue, debris, and foreign material from the wound, debridement helps prevent infection by reducing the bacterial load and creating an environment conducive to healing. It also promotes granulation tissue formation and wound contraction, which are essential for wound healing.
D. Promote suppuration of the wound:
Suppuration refers to the formation and discharge of pus from a wound, often indicating infection. Debridement aims to remove necrotic tissue and prevent infection, so promoting suppuration is not a desired outcome of debridement.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. A 60-year-old client with gastritis:
Gastritis is inflammation of the stomach lining and typically does not directly increase the risk of skin infections. However, if the gastritis is due to an underlying condition that affects the immune system, such as an autoimmune disorder, the client may have a slightly higher risk of infections, including skin infections, compared to a healthy individual of the same age. Overall, gastritis alone is not a significant risk factor for skin infections compared to the other options.
B. A 20-year-old client with a closed tibia fracture:
A closed tibia fracture refers to a broken shinbone that does not break the skin. While fractures themselves do not necessarily increase the risk of skin infections, they can indirectly contribute to infection risk if there are complications such as open wounds, surgical procedures, or prolonged immobilization. In this case, because the fracture is closed and presumably not complicated by open wounds or surgery, this client is not significantly prone to skin infections compared to the other options.
C. A 55-year-old client taking an ACE inhibitor:
ACE (angiotensin-converting enzyme) inhibitors are medications commonly used to treat conditions like high blood pressure and heart failure. While these medications can cause side effects like a dry cough or skin rash in some individuals, they do not directly increase the risk of skin infections. Unless the client experiences a severe allergic reaction or develops a rash that becomes infected, the use of ACE inhibitors alone is not a major risk factor for skin infections compared to the other options.
D. A 35-year-old client receiving chemotherapy:
Chemotherapy is a treatment for cancer that works by targeting rapidly dividing cells, including cancer cells but also affecting some healthy cells like those in the bone marrow responsible for producing white blood cells. As a result, chemotherapy can significantly weaken the immune system, leading to a higher risk of infections, including skin infections. Patients undergoing chemotherapy are particularly susceptible to bacterial, fungal, and viral infections due to their compromised immune response. Therefore, the 35-year-old client receiving chemotherapy is the most prone to skin infections among the options given due to their weakened immune system.
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