A nurse is caring for a group of clients who are 12 hours postoperative. The nurse should identify that the client who had which of the following procedures is at risk for developing fat embolism syndrome?

Thyroidectomy

Internal fixation of a fractured hip

Repair of a torn rotator cuff

Tympanoplasty

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason: Thyroidectomy is a surgical procedure that involves the removal of all or part of the thyroid gland. While there are risks associated with any surgery, thyroidectomy is not typically associated with fat embolism syndrome (FES). FES is more commonly linked to orthopedic procedures and trauma, particularly those involving long bones.

Choice B reason: Internal fixation of a fractured hip is a procedure that carries a risk for developing FES. FES is a serious and potentially life-threatening condition that occurs when fat globules enter the bloodstream and lodge within the blood vessels of the lungs or other organs. Hip fractures, especially those involving the long bones, can result in the release of fat globules into the bloodstream during the surgical repair process. Early surgical fixation is thought to reduce the risk of FES.

Choice C reason: Repair of a torn rotator cuff involves the shoulder joint and, while it is a significant surgical procedure, it is not typically associated with a high risk of FES. The rotator cuff is composed of muscles and tendons, and its repair does not usually involve manipulation of the long bones where fat embolism is more likely to occur.

Choice D reason: Tympanoplasty is a surgical procedure to repair a hole in the eardrum. It is an otologic procedure that does not involve the long bones or orthopedic manipulation. Therefore, it is not associated with a risk of developing FES.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason : Administering corticosteroids is not the first-line action for dyspnea related to fluid overload or other causes of respiratory distress in this context.

Choice B reason : Slowing the infusion rate is appropriate when there are signs of fluid overload, such as dyspnea and hypertension. Contacting the provider is crucial for further assessment and management, which may include diuretics or other interventions.

Choice C reason : Lowering the head of the bed to semi-Fowler's may provide some relief for dyspnea, but it does not address the potential cause, which in this case could be fluid overload.

Choice D reason : Changing the infusion to lactated Ringer's would not be appropriate if the client is experiencing symptoms of fluid overload. The type of fluid is less important than the volume and rate of administration in this scenario.

A. Perform a Mantoux skin test on the client. B. Assign the client to a negative-pressure airflow room. C. Wear a surgical mask when providing care to the client. D. Recommend that the client's family members receive antiviral therapy.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The correct answer is: c. Wear a surgical mask when providing care to the client.

Choice A: Perform a Mantoux skin test on the client

The Mantoux skin test is used to screen for tuberculosis, not pertussis. Pertussis, also known as whooping cough, is a bacterial infection caused by Bordetella pertussis. The Mantoux test would not be relevant or helpful in diagnosing or managing pertussis.

Choice B: Assign the client to a negative-pressure airflow room

Negative-pressure airflow rooms are typically used for airborne infections such as tuberculosis, measles, or varicella. Pertussis is primarily spread through respiratory droplets, not airborne transmission, so a negative-pressure room is not necessary.

Choice C: Wear a surgical mask when providing care to the client

Wearing a surgical mask is appropriate when caring for a client with pertussis. Pertussis is spread through respiratory droplets, and wearing a mask helps prevent the transmission of the bacteria to healthcare workers and other patients.

Choice D: Recommend that the client’s family members receive antiviral therapy

Antiviral therapy is not effective against pertussis, which is a bacterial infection. Instead, antibiotics such as azithromycin or erythromycin are used to treat pertussis and prevent its spread. Therefore, recommending antiviral therapy would not be appropriate.

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A nurse is caring for a group of clients who are 12 hours postoperative. The nurse should identify that the client who had which of the following procedures is at risk for developing fat embolism syndrome?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a 0.9% sodium chloride via IV infusion. The client has become dyspneic with a blood pressure of 140/100 mm Hg, a fluid intake of 960 mL, and an output of 300 mL in the past 12 hours. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse working in the emergency department is admitting a client who has pertussis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A: Perform a Mantoux skin test on the client

Choice B: Assign the client to a negative-pressure airflow room

Choice C: Wear a surgical mask when providing care to the client

Choice D: Recommend that the client’s family members receive antiviral therapy

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