A nurse is caring for a group of clients who are 12 hours postoperative. The nurse should identify that the client who had which of the following procedures is at risk for developing fat embolism syndrome?
Thyroidectomy
Internal fixation of a fractured hip
Repair of a torn rotator cuff
Tympanoplasty
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Thyroidectomy is a surgical procedure that involves the removal of all or part of the thyroid gland. While there are risks associated with any surgery, thyroidectomy is not typically associated with fat embolism syndrome (FES). FES is more commonly linked to orthopedic procedures and trauma, particularly those involving long bones.
Choice B reason: Internal fixation of a fractured hip is a procedure that carries a risk for developing FES. FES is a serious and potentially life-threatening condition that occurs when fat globules enter the bloodstream and lodge within the blood vessels of the lungs or other organs. Hip fractures, especially those involving the long bones, can result in the release of fat globules into the bloodstream during the surgical repair process. Early surgical fixation is thought to reduce the risk of FES.
Choice C reason: Repair of a torn rotator cuff involves the shoulder joint and, while it is a significant surgical procedure, it is not typically associated with a high risk of FES. The rotator cuff is composed of muscles and tendons, and its repair does not usually involve manipulation of the long bones where fat embolism is more likely to occur.
Choice D reason: Tympanoplasty is a surgical procedure to repair a hole in the eardrum. It is an otologic procedure that does not involve the long bones or orthopedic manipulation. Therefore, it is not associated with a risk of developing FES.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Anticonvulsants are medications used to prevent seizures. While seizures can occur after a stroke, anticonvulsants are not routinely prescribed unless the patient has a history of seizures or has experienced seizures post-stroke. Therefore, anticonvulsants would not be the standard pharmacologic therapy for all patients being discharged after an ischemic stroke.
Choice B reason: Diuretics are used to remove excess fluid from the body and are commonly prescribed for conditions such as heart failure or high blood pressure. They are not typically used as a standard treatment for ischemic stroke unless the patient has a specific condition that requires fluid management.
Choice C reason: Antithrombotic agents, such as aspirin or clopidogrel, are commonly prescribed to patients after an ischemic stroke to prevent further clot formation and reduce the risk of recurrent strokes. These medications work by inhibiting platelet aggregation and are a key part of secondary prevention in stroke management.
Choice D reason: Opioid analgesics are strong painkillers that are used to treat severe pain. They are not typically prescribed upon discharge for ischemic stroke patients unless there is a specific indication for pain management that cannot be managed with other medications.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: A client with diabetes mellitus presenting with acute ketoacidosis does not necessarily require a private room unless there are other infection control concerns. Acute ketoacidosis is a metabolic complication of diabetes that can be managed in a general ward setting with appropriate medical care and monitoring.
Choice B reason: An older adult client admitted with aspiration pneumonia would benefit from a private room if the pneumonia is caused by an infectious agent that requires droplet or airborne precautions. However, aspiration pneumonia is often a result of inhaling food, stomach acid, or saliva into the lungs, and not always infectious.
Choice C reason: A client with a compound fracture of the right femur would require a private room if there is an associated risk of infection due to the open nature of the injury. However, standard precautions and wound care can often be managed in a semi-private or general ward setting unless there are specific infection control issues.
Choice D reason: A client reporting fever, night sweats, and cough for 2 days may be exhibiting symptoms of a communicable disease such as tuberculosis. This client would require a private room with airborne precautions to prevent the spread of infection to other patients and healthcare workers.
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