A nurse is caring for a client with a ventricular pacemaker who is on ECG monitoring. The nurse understands that the pacemaker is functioning properly when which of the following appears on the monitor strip?
Pacemaker spikes before each QRS complex
Pacemaker spikes after each QRS complex
Pacemaker spikes before each P wave
Pacemaker spikes with each T wave
The Correct Answer is A
A. Pacemaker spikes before each QRS complex: This is the correct answer. In a client with a ventricular pacemaker, the pacemaker spikes should precede each QRS complex on the ECG strip. This indicates that the pacemaker is appropriately stimulating the ventricles to depolarize and initiate a heartbeat. The
presence of pacemaker spikes before each QRS complex signifies that the pacemaker is functioning properly and effectively pacing the ventricles.
B. Pacemaker spikes occurring after each QRS complex would suggest a malfunction or inappropriate timing of the pacemaker. In this scenario, the pacemaker would not be pacing the ventricles as intended. This would be an abnormal finding and would require further assessment and intervention.
C. Pacemaker spikes preceding each P wave would suggest pacing of the atria rather than the ventricles. This would indicate a different type of pacemaker (atrial pacemaker) or inappropriate pacing settings for a ventricular pacemaker. In either case, it would be considered abnormal for a ventricular pacemaker and would require evaluation and possibly reprogramming of the pacemaker.
D. Pacemaker spikes occurring with each T wave would be an abnormal finding and would suggest interference or oversensing by the pacemaker. This could lead to inappropriate pacing or dysrhythmias. It would require further investigation and correction to ensure proper pacemaker function.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
B. Endotracheal intubation and positive pressure ventilation are indicated in patients with respiratory failure who are unable to maintain adequate oxygenation or ventilation with non-invasive interventions. Intubation allows for the delivery of positive pressure ventilation, oxygenation, and airway protection. It also facilitates the clearance of secretions and administration of medications. Given the patient's severe hypoxemia, impending respiratory distress, and deteriorating condition, endotracheal intubation and positive pressure ventilation are the most appropriate interventions to ensure adequate oxygenation and prevent further deterioration.
A. CPAP is a non-invasive ventilation modality that provides a continuous positive pressure to the airways throughout the respiratory cycle. While CPAP may be beneficial in certain cases of respiratory failure, it may not be sufficient for a patient with severe hypoxemia (SpO2 of 80%) and impending respiratory distress. CPAP is typically indicated for patients with conditions such as obstructive sleep apnea or mild to moderate respiratory failure.
C. Mini-tracheostomy may be considered in certain cases of upper airway obstruction or inadequate airway clearance. However, in this scenario, the patient's hypoxemia is likely due to severe respiratory failure rather than upper airway obstruction. While suctioning may be necessary to clear secretions, it does not address the underlying cause of hypoxemia or provide ventilatory support.
D. While administration of supplemental oxygen is important in the management of hypoxemia, a non- rebreather mask may not be sufficient for a patient with severe hypoxemia and impending respiratory distress. Non-rebreather masks can deliver high concentrations of oxygen but may not provide adequate positive pressure support or airway protection. In this case, endotracheal intubation and positive pressure ventilation are more appropriate to ensure adequate oxygenation and ventilation.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
D Normal saline bolus administration is indicated for hypovolemia or inadequate intravascular volume, which can lead to decreased cardiac output and hypotension. In this scenario, the client has an amber urine output of 45ml in the last 3 hours, indicating decreased urine output and potential hypovolemia. The elevated blood pressure (170/67 mmHg) suggests possible volume overload or fluid retention, but the decreased urine output raises concerns for inadequate intravascular volume. Therefore, administering a normal saline bolus may be the first priority to optimize intravascular volume and improve cardiac output.
A Isosorbide mononitrate is a vasodilator commonly used in the treatment of heart failure and angina. It helps reduce preload and afterload, thereby decreasing the workload on the heart. However, in this scenario, the client's blood pressure is elevated (170/67 mmHg), and there is no indication of acute decompensation or pulmonary congestion. Therefore, isosorbide PO may not be the first priority medication at this time.
B Nitroglycerin is a potent vasodilator commonly used to manage acute heart failure exacerbations and acute coronary syndromes. It helps reduce preload and afterload, improving cardiac output and relieving symptoms of heart failure. In this scenario, the client's blood pressure is elevated, but the heart rate is normal, and there are no signs of acute decompensation. Therefore, initiating a nitroglycerin drip may not be the first priority unless the client develops symptoms of acute decompensation or pulmonary congestion.
C Dopamine is a vasopressor medication that can be used to increase blood pressure and cardiac output in patients with hypotension or shock. However, in this scenario, the client's blood pressure is elevated (170/67 mmHg), and there is no evidence of hypotension. Therefore, initiating a dopamine drip may not be appropriate at this time and could potentially exacerbate hypertension.
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