An older patient with cardiogenic shock is cool and clammy. Hemodynamic monitoring indicates a high systemic vascular resistance (SVR). Which intervention should the nurse anticipate?
Increase the rate for the dopamine infusion.
Increase the rate for the sodium nitroprusside infusion.
Decrease the rate for the nitroglycerin infusion.
Decrease the rate for the 5% dextrose in normal saline infusion.
The Correct Answer is B
B. Sodium nitroprusside is a potent vasodilator used to reduce systemic vascular resistance and afterload, thereby improving cardiac output and tissue perfusion in cardiogenic shock. In this scenario, where the patient has cool and clammy skin with high SVR, indicating peripheral vasoconstriction,
increasing the rate of sodium nitroprusside infusion can help vasodilate peripheral vessels, reduce afterload, and improve tissue perfusion
A. Dopamine is a medication commonly used in the management of cardiogenic shock to increase cardiac output and systemic blood pressure. However, in this scenario where the patient is cool and clammy with high SVR, indicating vasoconstriction and potential peripheral hypoperfusion, increasing the rate of dopamine infusion may further increase systemic vascular resistance and exacerbate peripheral vasoconstriction. This can worsen tissue perfusion and exacerbate the patient's condition.
.
C. Nitroglycerin is another vasodilator commonly used in the management of cardiogenic shock to reduce preload and afterload, thereby improving cardiac output and tissue perfusion. However, decreasing the rate of nitroglycerin infusion may further exacerbate vasoconstriction and increase SVR, worsening tissue perfusion in this scenario. Therefore, decreasing the rate of nitroglycerin infusion is not indicated.
D. Intravenous fluids such as 5% dextrose in normal saline are typically administered to maintain adequate intravascular volume and perfusion pressure in shock states. However, decreasing the rate of intravenous fluid infusion may further decrease intravascular volume and preload, potentially exacerbating hypoperfusion and worsening the patient's condition. Therefore, decreasing the rate of intravenous fluid infusion is not indicated in this scenario.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
D Normal saline bolus administration is indicated for hypovolemia or inadequate intravascular volume, which can lead to decreased cardiac output and hypotension. In this scenario, the client has an amber urine output of 45ml in the last 3 hours, indicating decreased urine output and potential hypovolemia. The elevated blood pressure (170/67 mmHg) suggests possible volume overload or fluid retention, but the decreased urine output raises concerns for inadequate intravascular volume. Therefore, administering a normal saline bolus may be the first priority to optimize intravascular volume and improve cardiac output.
A Isosorbide mononitrate is a vasodilator commonly used in the treatment of heart failure and angina. It helps reduce preload and afterload, thereby decreasing the workload on the heart. However, in this scenario, the client's blood pressure is elevated (170/67 mmHg), and there is no indication of acute decompensation or pulmonary congestion. Therefore, isosorbide PO may not be the first priority medication at this time.
B Nitroglycerin is a potent vasodilator commonly used to manage acute heart failure exacerbations and acute coronary syndromes. It helps reduce preload and afterload, improving cardiac output and relieving symptoms of heart failure. In this scenario, the client's blood pressure is elevated, but the heart rate is normal, and there are no signs of acute decompensation. Therefore, initiating a nitroglycerin drip may not be the first priority unless the client develops symptoms of acute decompensation or pulmonary congestion.
C Dopamine is a vasopressor medication that can be used to increase blood pressure and cardiac output in patients with hypotension or shock. However, in this scenario, the client's blood pressure is elevated (170/67 mmHg), and there is no evidence of hypotension. Therefore, initiating a dopamine drip may not be appropriate at this time and could potentially exacerbate hypertension.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Pacemaker spikes before each QRS complex: This is the correct answer. In a client with a ventricular pacemaker, the pacemaker spikes should precede each QRS complex on the ECG strip. This indicates that the pacemaker is appropriately stimulating the ventricles to depolarize and initiate a heartbeat. The
presence of pacemaker spikes before each QRS complex signifies that the pacemaker is functioning properly and effectively pacing the ventricles.
B. Pacemaker spikes occurring after each QRS complex would suggest a malfunction or inappropriate timing of the pacemaker. In this scenario, the pacemaker would not be pacing the ventricles as intended. This would be an abnormal finding and would require further assessment and intervention.
C. Pacemaker spikes preceding each P wave would suggest pacing of the atria rather than the ventricles. This would indicate a different type of pacemaker (atrial pacemaker) or inappropriate pacing settings for a ventricular pacemaker. In either case, it would be considered abnormal for a ventricular pacemaker and would require evaluation and possibly reprogramming of the pacemaker.
D. Pacemaker spikes occurring with each T wave would be an abnormal finding and would suggest interference or oversensing by the pacemaker. This could lead to inappropriate pacing or dysrhythmias. It would require further investigation and correction to ensure proper pacemaker function.
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