A nurse is caring for a client who will undergo a procedure. The client states he does not want the provider to discuss the results with his partner. Which of the following is an appropriate response for the nurse to make?
"You have the right to decide who receives information."
"Your partner can be a great source of support for you at this time."
"Is there a reason you don't want your partner to know about your procedure?"
"The provider will be tactful when talking to your partner."
The Correct Answer is A
Rationale:
A. "You have the right to decide who receives information.": Clients have the legal and ethical right to confidentiality regarding their medical care under HIPAA and patient privacy regulations. Respecting the client’s decision about who can receive health information reinforces autonomy and ensures that the nurse supports the client’s rights in healthcare decision-making.
B. "Your partner can be a great source of support for you at this time.": While acknowledging the potential benefits of support is empathetic, this statement does not address the client’s request for privacy. It may inadvertently pressure the client to share information, which could violate confidentiality and autonomy.
C. "Is there a reason you don't want your partner to know about your procedure?": Asking for justification may make the client feel challenged or judged. The client is not required to explain their choice, and pressing for reasons can undermine trust and respect for their privacy.
D. "The provider will be tactful when talking to your partner.": This statement assumes the provider will communicate with the partner and disregards the client’s expressed wishes. It could lead to disclosure against the client’s consent, violating confidentiality and patient rights.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"A","dropdown-group-3":"A","dropdown-group-4":"A"}
Explanation
Rationale for correct choices
• Blurred vision: Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant that has anticholinergic effects, which can reduce the ability of the eyes to focus and cause blurred vision. Clients should be warned about potential difficulty with reading or driving until they know how the medication affects their vision. This adverse effect is common and may persist throughout therapy.
• Orthostatic hypotension Amitriptyline can block alpha-adrenergic receptors, leading to vasodilation and a drop in blood pressure upon standing. Clients may experience dizziness, lightheadedness, or fainting, especially when moving from sitting to standing. Monitoring blood pressure and educating the client to rise slowly are important preventive strategies.
• Urinary retention Anticholinergic effects of amitriptyline can impair bladder contraction, causing difficulty initiating urination or incomplete emptying. This is particularly important in older adults or clients with preexisting urinary issues. Teaching clients to report urinary hesitancy or discomfort helps prevent complications such as infection.
• Constipation Amitriptyline slows gastrointestinal motility due to its anticholinergic properties, making constipation a common adverse effect. Clients may need dietary adjustments, increased fluid intake, or stool softeners. Early teaching on prevention is important to reduce discomfort and maintain regular bowel habits.
Rationale for incorrect choices
• Tinnitus: Tinnitus is not commonly associated with amitriptyline therapy. While some medications can cause ringing in the ears, this is not a primary concern with tricyclic antidepressants. It is less likely to be observed or require teaching.
• Sore throat: Sore throat is not a known adverse effect of amitriptyline. Upper respiratory symptoms are unrelated to the anticholinergic and adrenergic effects of this medication, making this an inappropriate teaching point.
• Bradycardia: Amitriptyline does not typically cause bradycardia; it may instead affect conduction and potentially lead to arrhythmias in susceptible clients, but slowing the heart rate is uncommon. Monitoring focuses on blood pressure rather than heart rate reduction.
• Peripheral edema: Peripheral edema is not a common effect of amitriptyline. Fluid retention is not typically induced by tricyclic antidepressants, so this is not a relevant teaching point.
• Increased urination: Amitriptyline generally causes urinary retention rather than increased urination due to anticholinergic effects. Increased urination is not expected and is not a priority to include in client teaching.
• Dysuria: While urinary retention can cause discomfort, dysuria (painful urination) is not a direct effect of amitriptyline. Any urinary pain would likely be secondary to infection, not the medication itself.
• Diarrhea: Amitriptyline slows gastrointestinal motility, so diarrhea is not a common effect. Constipation is far more likely due to anticholinergic activity.
• Nausea with vomiting: Although some clients may experience mild nausea initially, constipation is more directly linked to the anticholinergic mechanism and is more consistent as a common teaching point. Nausea is less frequent and usually transient.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Keep the foot in plantar flexion: Maintaining the foot in plantar flexion increases the risk of developing foot drop by shortening the dorsiflexor muscles. This position does not support proper alignment or prevent contractures, making it counterproductive for prevention.
B. Elevate the client's feet on pillows: Elevating the feet may help reduce edema but does not prevent foot drop. It does not maintain proper dorsiflexion or support the ankle in a neutral position, so it is not effective for contracture prevention.
C. Brace the foot with an ankle-foot orthotic: An ankle-foot orthotic maintains the foot in a neutral position, preventing plantar flexion contractures and promoting proper alignment of the ankle. This intervention is highly effective for preventing foot drop in immobile clients by keeping the muscles and tendons stretched appropriately.
D. Perform passive range of motion of the ankle twice per day: Passive range of motion helps maintain joint mobility and circulation but alone may be insufficient to prevent foot drop. Consistent bracing or positioning is necessary to maintain neutral alignment when the client is not actively moving the ankle.
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