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A nurse is caring for a client in an orthopedic unit.

Exhibits

Drag words from the choices below to fill in each blank in the following sentence.

The client is at risk for developing

and
Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"D","dropdown-group-2":"B"}

  • Deep vein syndrome: This is not a recognized condition. The intended term may have been deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a valid orthopedic complication, but the clinical findings in this scenario point more urgently toward compartment syndrome and infection.
  • Osteomyelitis: The client has an open fracture with drainage from the splint, a significantly elevated WBC count (28,000/mm³), and a high fever (38.9°C / 102°F). These findings suggest the development of a bone infection (osteomyelitis), especially in the context of recent surgery and internal fixation.
  • Fat embolism syndrome: While fat embolism is a risk with long bone fractures, this client is not displaying key hallmark signs such as respiratory distress, petechiae, or altered mental status. The findings are more consistent with infection and circulatory compromise.
  • Compartment syndrome: The client has classic signs including cool foot, numbness, inability to move toes, absent pulses, delayed capillary refill, and increased pain. These are hallmark signs of neurovascular compromise from compartment syndrome, a surgical emergency.


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Related Questions

Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"B"}

Explanation

An hCG level of 30,000 IU/L is significantly elevated and may suggest a molar pregnancy, especially when values are higher than expected for gestational age. In a molar pregnancy (hydatidiform mole), trophoblastic tissue proliferates abnormally, producing excessive hCG. This level, in combination with normal hemoglobin and hematocrit, makes other causes like spontaneous or induced abortion less likely.

Key Takeaways:

  • Extremely elevated hCG levels can indicate gestational trophoblastic disease (molar pregnancy).
  • Molar pregnancy is a nonviable pregnancy characterized by abnormal trophoblast proliferation.
  • Normal hemoglobin and hematocrit reduce the likelihood of current bleeding or miscarriage.

Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"E"}

Explanation

  • Tocolytic medication: Tocolytics are used to suppress preterm labor, which is not applicable for this postpartum client. There is no indication of uterine contractions needing suppression.
  • Intravenous antibiotic: The client exhibits signs of postpartum endometritis—including fever, uterine tenderness, foul-smelling lochia, and a very high WBC count (33,000/mm³). These findings strongly support the need for IV antibiotics to treat the infection.
  • Intrauterine tamponade balloon: This device is used for managing postpartum hemorrhage, which is not present in this case. The client’s lochia is moderate, not excessive, and her uterus is responding to massage.
  • Kleihauer-Betke test: This test is used to detect fetal-to-maternal hemorrhage, particularly in Rh-negative mothers after trauma or potential placental separation. It is not relevant in the context of postpartum infection.
  • Increase in daily fluid intake: The client is febrile and shows signs of systemic infection. Increased fluids support hydration, promote recovery, and help manage the effects of fever and infection, making this an appropriate supportive measure.

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