A nurse is caring for a client in an orthopedic unit.
Drag words from the choices below to fill in each blank in the following sentence.
The client is at risk for developing
The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"D","dropdown-group-2":"B"}
- Deep vein syndrome: This is not a recognized condition. The intended term may have been deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a valid orthopedic complication, but the clinical findings in this scenario point more urgently toward compartment syndrome and infection.
- Osteomyelitis: The client has an open fracture with drainage from the splint, a significantly elevated WBC count (28,000/mm³), and a high fever (38.9°C / 102°F). These findings suggest the development of a bone infection (osteomyelitis), especially in the context of recent surgery and internal fixation.
- Fat embolism syndrome: While fat embolism is a risk with long bone fractures, this client is not displaying key hallmark signs such as respiratory distress, petechiae, or altered mental status. The findings are more consistent with infection and circulatory compromise.
- Compartment syndrome: The client has classic signs including cool foot, numbness, inability to move toes, absent pulses, delayed capillary refill, and increased pain. These are hallmark signs of neurovascular compromise from compartment syndrome, a surgical emergency.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Weak femoral pulses. Coarctation of the aorta is a congenital narrowing of the aorta, which leads to reduced blood flow to the lower extremities, resulting in weak or absent femoral pulses—a hallmark finding of this condition.
B. Increased intracranial pressure. This is not directly associated with coarctation of the aorta. While severe hypertension can lead to neurologic symptoms, increased ICP is not a typical or early finding.
C. Upper extremity hypotension. The condition causes hypertension in the upper extremities and hypotension in the lower extremities due to the location of the narrowing. Upper extremity hypotension would be an unexpected finding.
D. Frequent nosebleeds. While nosebleeds may occur in older children or adults with uncontrolled hypertension, they are not an expected finding in infants with coarctation of the aorta.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. "You should take a second dose if there is no relief within fifteen minutes after the initial dose." The second dose of sumatriptan should not be taken sooner than 2 hours after the first dose if there is no relief or if the migraine returns. Taking it too soon increases the risk of adverse effects.
B. "You may experience low blood pressure while taking this medication." Sumatriptan more commonly causes hypertension, not hypotension. It can cause vasoconstriction, which may elevate blood pressure and poses risks, especially in clients with cardiovascular disease.
C. "You should have complete relief in six hours after taking this medication." Relief from sumatriptan is often experienced within 1–2 hours after administration. While not all clients achieve complete relief, the medication acts quickly, and six hours is not the expected timeframe.
D. “You may experience muscle cramps as a potential adverse effect of the medication." Muscle cramps or tightness in the chest, neck, or limbs can occur due to vasoconstriction caused by sumatriptan. This is a known side effect and should be reported if severe or persistent.
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