A nurse is caring for a client in an orthopedic unit.
Drag words from the choices below to fill in each blank in the following sentence.
The client is at risk for developing
The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"D","dropdown-group-2":"B"}
- Deep vein syndrome: This is not a recognized condition. The intended term may have been deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a valid orthopedic complication, but the clinical findings in this scenario point more urgently toward compartment syndrome and infection.
- Osteomyelitis: The client has an open fracture with drainage from the splint, a significantly elevated WBC count (28,000/mm³), and a high fever (38.9°C / 102°F). These findings suggest the development of a bone infection (osteomyelitis), especially in the context of recent surgery and internal fixation.
- Fat embolism syndrome: While fat embolism is a risk with long bone fractures, this client is not displaying key hallmark signs such as respiratory distress, petechiae, or altered mental status. The findings are more consistent with infection and circulatory compromise.
- Compartment syndrome: The client has classic signs including cool foot, numbness, inability to move toes, absent pulses, delayed capillary refill, and increased pain. These are hallmark signs of neurovascular compromise from compartment syndrome, a surgical emergency.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]
Explanation
A. Vital signs. The client has a significantly elevated heart rate (110/min) and elevated blood pressure (178/82 mm Hg), both of which can be associated with autonomic responses in dumping syndrome. The dizziness and desire to lie down after eating are also classic symptoms. These signs reflect the body’s reaction to rapid gastric emptying and fluid shifts.
B. Prescribed diet. While a bland, soft diet is generally safe post-gastrectomy, it may not prevent dumping syndrome unless it includes specific modifications like low carbohydrate intake and small, frequent meals. However, this option alone does not directly indicate dumping syndrome.
C. Skin appearance. The client is noted to be diaphoretic and pale, which are common symptoms of dumping syndrome due to the vasomotor response and hypoglycemia that can follow rapid gastric emptying.
D. Blood glucose level. The client's fasting blood glucose dropped to 65 mg/dL, which is below the normal range. Hypoglycemia is a hallmark of late dumping syndrome, resulting from excessive insulin release after rapid carbohydrate absorption in the small intestine.
E. WBC count. The WBC count is within normal range (9,000/mm³) and does not indicate dumping syndrome or an infectious process. It is not relevant in this context.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Delayed. Delayed grief is characterized by the postponement or suppression of grieving responses, often surfacing long after the loss has occurred. It does not apply here, as the family member is expressing active emotional struggle before the loss.
B. Anticipatory. Anticipatory grief occurs before an actual loss, such as when a loved one is dying from a terminal illness. The family member is beginning to grieve the impending death and the emotional impact of the future loss, which fits this type of grief.
C. Disenfranchised. Disenfranchised grief refers to grief that is not openly acknowledged or socially supported, such as the death of an ex-partner or a pet. In this scenario, the grief is acknowledged and supported, so this does not apply.
D. Exaggerated. Exaggerated grief involves intense symptoms that interfere with daily functioning, such as severe depression, phobias, or suicidal thoughts. The family member is expressing difficulty, but not at a level that indicates dysfunction.
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