A nurse is caring for a client who weighs 75 kg. The client has a prescription from a dietitian to decrease calorie intake by 500 cal/day to produce weight loss of 1 lb per week. What is the expected goal weight for the client in pounds at the end of the 25 weeks? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
______ lbs
The Correct Answer is ["140"]
Calculation:
- Convert the client's current weight from kilograms (kg) to pounds (lbs).
Current weight (lbs) = Patient weight (kg) x Conversion factor (lbs/kg)
= 75 kg x 2.2 lbs/kg
= 165 lbs.
- Calculate the total weight loss over 25 weeks.
Total weight loss (lbs) = Weight loss per week (lbs) x Number of weeks
= 1 lb/week x 25 weeks
= 25 lbs.
- Calculate the expected goal weight in pounds (lbs).
Goal weight (lbs) = Current weight (lbs) - Total weight loss (lbs)
= 165 lbs - 25 lbs
= 140 lbs.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. "I don't think you understand the risks to your health.": This response is dismissive of the client’s autonomy and implies the nurse is questioning the client’s decision-making ability. It can create a defensive reaction rather than supporting informed consent.
B. "You should talk with your family about it first.": While family support can be helpful, the decision for surgery ultimately rests with the client. Suggesting family involvement at this point could undermine the client’s right to make an independent healthcare decision.
C. "I will notify your provider regarding this decision.": This response respects the client’s autonomy and ensures the healthcare team is promptly informed. It also facilitates further discussion between the provider and client about the decision, ensuring it is fully informed.
D. "Let me remind you of the benefits of the surgery.": While reviewing benefits can be part of informed consent, doing so after the client has expressed a clear decision not to proceed may be perceived as coercive rather than supportive.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Current fecal impaction: While fecal impaction requires treatment, it is not related to the safety or pharmacologic effects of conjugated estrogen therapy and does not constitute a contraindication.
B. Present report of abdominal pain: Abdominal pain requires evaluation, but it is nonspecific and not an absolute contraindication to conjugated estrogen unless related to certain underlying conditions like liver disease or cancer.
C. Thrombophlebitis: Estrogen increases the risk of thromboembolic events by promoting clot formation. A history or presence of thrombophlebitis makes estrogen therapy unsafe due to the elevated risk of worsening venous thromboembolism.
D. Diverticulitis: Diverticulitis is an inflammatory bowel condition that is not directly affected by estrogen therapy. It would not typically prohibit the use of conjugated estrogen unless complications or comorbidities present additional risks.
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