A nurse is caring for a client who reports difficulty falling asleep at night. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Encourage the client to ambulate in the hallway 1 hr before bedtime.
Tell the client to avoid drinking fluids 1 hr before bedtime.
Schedule routine care tasks during hours when the client is awake.
Advise the client to leave the television in the room on when trying to fall asleep.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Encourage the client to ambulate in the hallway 1 hr before bedtime - While light exercise during the day can promote better sleep, exercising close to bedtime can actually disrupt sleep.
B. Tell the client to avoid drinking fluids 1 hr before bedtime - While limiting fluids close to bedtime can reduce nighttime awakenings to urinate, it may not directly address difficulty falling asleep.
C. Schedule routine care tasks during hours when the client is awake - This action ensures that the client can maximize restful sleep during the night by minimizing disruptions from care
activities.
D. Advise the client to leave the television in the room on when trying to fall asleep - Screen
time before bed can interfere with falling asleep due to the stimulating effect of light and content.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Levothyroxine is a thyroid hormone replacement medication commonly used to treat hypothyroidism. It is not associated with teratogenic effects when used appropriately.
B. Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant medication that is known to be teratogenic, especially when used during the first trimester of pregnancy. It is associated with an increased risk of congenital malformations, such as cleft palate and heart defects, in infants born to mothers who take the medication during pregnancy.
C. Magnesium oxide is a mineral supplement commonly used to treat constipation during pregnancy. It is not associated with teratogenic effects when used appropriately.
D. Ferrous sulfate is an iron supplement commonly used to treat chronic anemia during pregnancy. It is not associated with teratogenic effects when used appropriately.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
- A: A heart rate greater than 60/min indicates that the transcutaneous pacing is effectively maintaining a heart rate within a normal range, which is crucial for adequate cardiac output and systemic perfusion.
- B: While 2+ pedal pulses indicate good peripheral perfusion, they do not directly reflect the effectiveness of transcutaneous pacing in treating complete heart block.
- C: Pacer spikes should appear before the QRS complex to show that the pacing stimulus is being delivered appropriately. Spikes after the QRS complex suggest that the pacing is not capturing the heart effectively.
- D: Distended jugular veins would be more indicative of heart failure or fluid overload and do not directly relate to the effectiveness of pacing therapy.
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