A nurse is caring for a client who is to receive potassium replacement. The provider's prescription reads, "Potassium chloride 30 mEq in 0.9% sodium chloride 100 mL IV over 30 min." For which of the following reasons should the nurse clarify this prescription with the provider?
The client should be treated by giving potassium by IV bolus.
Another formulation of potassium should be given IV.
Potassium chloride should be diluted in dextrose 5% in water.
The potassium infusion rate is too rapid.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
IV bolus administration of potassium is not appropriate due to the risk of cardiac arrhythmias.
Choice B rationale:
The formulation of potassium (potassium chloride) is appropriate for IV administration.
Choice C rationale:
Potassium chloride is typically diluted in normal saline (0.9% sodium chloride) for IV administration, not dextrose.
Choice D rationale:
The prescribed infusion rate of 30 mEq of potassium chloride over 30 minutes is too rapid and could lead to adverse effects, such as cardiac arrhythmias. The nurse should clarify the prescription and discuss a slower infusion rate with the provider.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Increased pain relief is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone, but rather an adverse effect of morphine. Naloxone would reduce the analgesic effect of morphine and increase the pain sensation in the client.
Choice B rationale:
Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that reverses the effects of opioids, such as morphine, on the central nervous system. One of the main adverse effects of opioids is respiratory depression, which can lead to hypoxia and death. Naloxone restores normal breathing by blocking the opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord. Therefore, a therapeutic effect of naloxone is increased respiratory rate.
Choice C rationale:
Decreased blood pressure is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone, but rather a possible side effect of morphine. Naloxone would not affect the blood pressure significantly, unless the client had severe hypotension due to opioid overdose.
Choice D rationale:
Decreased nausea is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone, but rather a possible side effect of morphine. Naloxone would not affect the gastrointestinal system, unless the client had severe nausea and vomiting due to opioid overdose.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Increased fluid intake is not likely to change the color of urine and sweat caused by rifampin.
Choice B rationale:
Dialysis is not indicated for managing the red-orange discoloration caused by rifampin.
Choice C rationale:
Rifampin can affect liver function, but the red-orange discoloration is not primarily related to liver function.
Choice D rationale:
Red-orange discoloration of urine, sweat, and other body fluids is an expected side effect of rifampin and does not require any specific interventions.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.