A nurse is caring for a client who is taking antihypertensive medication and is moving from a supine to a sitting position.
Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing orthostatic hypotension?
The client's heart rate increases by 10/min.
The client's diastolic blood pressure increases by 10 mm Hg.
The client reports heart palpitations.
The client's systolic blood pressure decreases by 25 mm Hg.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
An increase in heart rate by 10 beats per minute when moving from a supine to a sitting position is a normal physiological response to compensate for decreased venous return and maintain cardiac output. This response does not indicate orthostatic hypotension.
Choice B rationale:
An increase in diastolic blood pressure by 10 mm Hg when moving from a supine to a sitting position is a normal response to compensate for the effects of gravity on blood flow. It helps maintain perfusion to vital organs and does not indicate orthostatic hypotension.
Choice C rationale:
Heart palpitations can occur due to various reasons, including anxiety or arrhythmias, but they are not specific signs of orthostatic hypotension. This symptom alone does not confirm the presence of orthostatic hypotension.
Choice D rationale:
A decrease in systolic blood pressure by 25 mm Hg or more when moving from a supine to a sitting position indicates orthostatic hypotension. Orthostatic hypotension is defined as a drop in systolic blood pressure of 20 mm Hg or more or a drop in diastolic blood pressure of 10 mm Hg or more within 3 minutes of standing up. This condition can cause dizziness, lightheadedness, or fainting and can be a side effect of antihypertensive medications or other underlying medical conditions.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["C","E"]
Explanation
A. Placenta previa: The client's symptoms do not specifically suggest placenta previa, which is characterized by painless vaginal bleeding, not back pain.
B. Disseminated intravascular coagulation: The client's symptoms and vital signs do not suggest disseminated intravascular coagulation, which is a serious condition characterized by excessive bleeding and clotting throughout the body.
C. Preeclampsia: The presence of uterine contractions, elevated blood pressure, and a potential increase in body temperature can indicate the risk of developing preeclampsia, a condition characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to other organ systems, often developing after the 20th week of pregnancy.
D. Sepsis: While the client has an elevated temperature, the symptoms provided do not strongly indicate sepsis. Other signs, such as rapid heart rate, low blood pressure, and changes in mental status, are usually associated with sepsis.
E. Preterm prelabour rupture of membranes (PROM): The client's report of lower back pain, pinkish vaginal discharge, and uterine contractions can raise concern for the risk of preterm prelabour rupture of membranes, where the amniotic sac ruptures before the onset of labor.
F. Seizures: The client's symptoms and information provided do not indicate a risk of seizures. Seizures can be associated with conditions like preeclampsia but are not directly indicated by the client's current assessment.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Administering the medication 30 minutes earlier may not be appropriate without specific orders from the provider.
B. Infusing the medication at a faster rate is not a solution for adjusting the timing of the dose.
C. Administering the medication up to 2 hours after the usual schedule time is incorrect because it could lead to subtherapeutic levels and reduced effectiveness.
D. Adjusting the medication schedule solely for the convenience of the client without consulting the provider is not recommended.
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