A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing hypovolemia. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

Epistaxis.

Headache.

Dizziness.

Shortness of breath.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Dizziness is a manifestation of hypovolemia, which is a decrease in blood volume due to fluid loss. Hypovolemia can cause orthostatic hypotension, which is a drop in blood pressure when changing positions. This can lead to dizziness, lightheadedness, or fainting.

Choice A is wrong because it is not a sign of hypovolemia, but rather a possible cause of it. Epistaxis is a nosebleed that can result from trauma, infection, dryness, or coagulation disorders.

Choice B is wrong because it is not a specific sign of hypovolemia, but rather a nonspecific symptom that can have many causes. Headache can be associated with dehydration, but it can also be caused by stress, infection, inflammation, or other factors.

Choice D is wrong because it is not a sign of hypovolemia, but rather a sign of fluid volume excess.

Fluid volume excess is an increase in blood volume due to fluid retention or overload. Fluid volume excess can cause dyspnea, which is difficulty breathing or shortness of breath.

Normal ranges for blood pressure are 90/60 mm Hg to 120/80 mm Hg for adults. Normal ranges for heart rate are 60 to 100 beats per minute for adults.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist that inhibits the synthesis of factors II, VII, IX, and X in the liver. These factors are part of the extrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are measured by the prothrombin time (PT) and the international normalized ratio (INR). The INR is a standardized way of reporting the PT that accounts for the variability of different reagents and instruments. The INR is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin and to adjust the dose accordingly. The target INR range depends on the indication for warfarin, but it is usually between 2 and 3 for most conditions.

Choice B is wrong because fibrinogen level is not affected by warfarin.

Fibrinogen is a precursor of fibrin, which forms the final step of the coagulation cascade.

Fibrinogen level can be decreased in conditions such as disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), liver disease, or severe bleeding.

Choice C is wrong because aPTT is not affected by warfarin.

aPTT measures the intrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are mainly dependent on factors VIII, IX, XI, and XII.

These factors are not inhibited by warfarin.

aPTT is used to monitor the effect of heparin, a direct antithrombin agent that inhibits thrombin and factor Xa.

Choice D is wrong because platelet count is not affected by warfarin.

Platelets are cell fragments that adhere to damaged blood vessels and form aggregates to initiate hemostasis.

Platelet count can be decreased in conditions such as immune thrombocytopenia (ITP), heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), or bone marrow suppression.

A. Preeclampsia. B. Seizures. C. Preterm pre-labor rupture of membranes (PROM). D. Placenta previa. E. Sepsis. F. Disseminated intravascular coagulation.

Correct Answer is ["C","E"]

Explanation

Preterm pre-labor rupture of membranes (PROM) is the spontaneous rupture of the amniotic sac before the onset of labor in a pregnancy less than 37 weeks gestation. It can lead to

infection, cord prolapse, placental abruption, and preterm delivery. The client has risk factors for PROM such as a history of preterm birth and a current infection indicated by fever.

Sepsis is a life-threatening condition that occurs when the body’s response to an infection causes damage to its own tissues and organs. The client has signs of sepsis such as fever, tachycardia, and possible organ dysfunction. The client may have a urinary tract infection, a common cause of sepsis in pregnancy, or an intrauterine infection due to PROM or other factors.

Preeclampsia is not a likely complication for this client because she does not have high blood pressure or proteinuria, which are the defining features of preeclampsia. Seizures are not a likely complication for this client because she does not have epilepsy or eclampsia, which are the leading causes of seizures in pregnancy. Placenta previa is not a likely complication for this client because she does not have painless vaginal bleeding, which is the hallmark symptom of placenta previa.

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A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing hypovolemia. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

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