A nurse is assessing a 2-year-old toddler.
Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Nontender, protruding abdomen.
Head circumference exceeds chest circumference.
Palpable fontanels.
Natural loss of deciduous teeth.
The Correct Answer is A
A non-tender, protruding abdomen is a normal finding for a 2- year-old toddler. This is due to the immature development of the abdominal muscles and the relatively large size of the liver and kidneys in relation to the rest of the body.
Choice B is wrong because the head circumference should be equal to or less than the chest circumference by age 2. A head circumference that exceeds the chest circumference could indicate hydrocephalus or other neurological problems.
Choice C is wrong because the fontanels, or soft spots on the skull, should be closed by the age of 18 months. Palpable fontanels could indicate dehydration, malnutrition, or congenital disorders.
Choice D is wrong because the natural loss of deciduous teeth, or baby teeth, usually begins around age 6. Premature loss of teeth could indicate dental caries, trauma, or endocrine disorders.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This is because epiglottitis is a life-threatening condition that can cause severe airway obstruction and respiratory distress in children. The nurse should monitor the child for signs of worsening breathing, such as stridor, cyanosis, restlessness, or drooling. The nurse should also be prepared to assist with intubation or tracheostomy if needed.
Choice A is wrong because assessing the child for frequent swallowing may increase the risk of vomiting and aspiration. Swallowing may also be difficult and painful for the child due to the inflammation of the epiglottis.
Choice C is wrong because suctioning the child’s oropharynx may cause more swelling and irritation of the epiglottis, or trigger a spasm that can close off the airway. The nurse should avoid any stimulation of the throat or mouth that may worsen the condition.
Choice D is wrong because administering pancreatic enzymes with meals is not relevant to epiglottitis. Pancreatic enzymes are used to treat cystic fibrosis, a genetic disorder that affects the lungs and digestive system. Epiglottitis is caused by a bacterial infection or an injury to the throat.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D: A client who is taking warfarin and has an INR of 1.8.
Choice A rationale:
A Mantoux test with an induration after 48 hours can be a normal reaction, especially if the induration is within the expected size range for a positive result, depending on the individual’s risk factors and history. It does not necessarily require follow-up care unless the induration is significantly large or there are other concerning symptoms.
Choice B rationale:
A client scheduled for a colonoscopy and taking sodium phosphate does not typically require follow-up care for the sodium phosphate intake itself. Sodium phosphate is commonly used as a bowel prep medication to clear the intestines prior to the procedure.
Choice C rationale:
A potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L is within the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L), so a client taking bumetanide with this potassium level would not typically require follow-up care for the potassium level alone.
Choice D rationale:
A client taking warfarin with an INR of 1.8 requires follow-up care because the therapeutic range for warfarin is typically between 2.0 and 3.0 for most indications. An INR of 1.8 may indicate that the blood is not “thin” enough, increasing the risk of thrombotic events, and the warfarin dose may need adjustment.
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