A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following factors places the client at risk for aspiration?
A residual of 65 mL 1 hr postprandial
Sitting in high-Fowler's position during the feeding
A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease
Receiving a high-osmolarity formula
The Correct Answer is C
A. Incorrect. A residual of 65 mL may indicate delayed gastric emptying, but it alone does not directly correlate with an increased risk of aspiration unless it leads to significant overdistension or the client is unable to tolerate further feedings.
B. Incorrect. Sitting in high Fowler's position during feeding is actually a preventive measure against aspiration.
C. Correct. his factor increases the risk for aspiration. Clients with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) are more prone to refluxing contents from the stomach into the esophagus, which can lead to aspiration, especially during or after feedings.
D. Incorrect. The osmolarity of the formula might affect tolerance but is not directly related to aspiration risk.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Incorrect. Initiating seclusion protocol should only be done in situations where the safety of the client or others is at risk and after appropriate assessment and intervention.
B. Correct. Acknowledging the client's emotions and showing empathy can help defuse the situation and promote effective communication.
C. Incorrect. Using personal protective equipment (face shield with mask) is not necessary when interacting with an agitated client unless there is a specific infection control concern.
D. Incorrect. Engaging the panic alarm is not necessary in this situation, as it may escalate the client's agitation.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Incorrect. Family history of malignant hypertension is not a contraindication for alteplase.
B. Incorrect. COPD itself is not a contraindication for alteplase. While it can complicate overall management, it does not increase the immediate risk of bleeding associated with thrombolytics.
C. Correct. Recent surgery, especially orthopedic surgery like hip arthroplasty, is a contraindication for thrombolytic therapy due to the increased risk of bleeding and hematoma formation at the surgical site.
D. Incorrect. Acute renal failure from six months ago is not a contraindication for alteplase.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.