A nurse is caring for a client who is taking an oral contraceptive. The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following findings to the provider immediately?
Painful intercourse
Vaginal itching
Persistent headaches
Breast tenderness
The Correct Answer is C
A. Painful intercourse: Painful intercourse can have various causes, but it is not typically associated with serious complications related to oral contraceptives. It may be addressed with the healthcare provider during a routine follow-up.
B. Vaginal itching: Vaginal itching may be due to various reasons, including infections, but it is not typically a direct side effect of oral contraceptives. However, if the itching is persistent or severe, the client should report it to the provider for appropriate evaluation.
C. Persistent headaches: Persistent headaches can be a concerning side effect associated with the use of oral contraceptives. It may indicate an increased risk of vascular events, such as stroke or thrombosis. Clients experiencing persistent headaches while on oral contraceptives should report this symptom to the healthcare provider immediately for further evaluation.
D. Breast tenderness: Breast tenderness is a common side effect of hormonal contraceptives, and it is not typically an emergency or a sign of serious complications. However, if the breast tenderness is severe or associated with other concerning symptoms, the client should contact the provider for guidance.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The client urinates 30 ml/hr
Effective voiding after the removal of a urinary catheter involves the ability to produce an adequate amount of urine. A urine output of 30 ml per hour is within the normal range, indicating that the client is passing urine consistently, which is a positive sign of bladder function.
B. The uterine fundus is 2 cm above the umbilicus: The position of the uterine fundus is related to postpartum uterine involution and is not a direct indicator of effective voiding. It is more relevant to assessing the progress of the uterus returning to its pre-pregnancy state.
C. The bladder is distended upon palpation: A distended bladder is a sign of urinary retention, not effective voiding. If the bladder is distended, it indicates that the client may not be emptying the bladder properly.
D. The client does not feel the urge to urinate: Lack of urge to urinate could be a sign of urinary retention or impaired bladder function. A normal and healthy bladder function includes the sensation of the urge to void when the bladder is filling.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. This medication increases cardiac output: Magnesium sulfate does not typically increase cardiac output. Its primary role in the context of preeclampsia is to prevent seizures and manage hypertension.
B. This medication stabilizes the fetal heart rate: While magnesium sulfate can have a relaxing effect on the uterus, which might indirectly influence fetal heart rate, its primary purpose in preeclampsia is seizure prevention rather than fetal heart rate stabilization.
C. The medication improves tissue perfusion: Magnesium sulfate primarily functions as an anticonvulsant and tocolytic (relaxes the uterus). While its effects on vasodilation can contribute to improved blood flow, the primary indication in preeclampsia is seizure prevention.
D. The medication prevents seizures
Magnesium sulfate is commonly used in the management of preeclampsia to prevent seizures (eclampsia), a serious complication of the condition. It has anticonvulsant properties and is the primary medication for seizure prophylaxis in pregnant individuals with preeclampsia.
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