A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving prednisone on a long-term basis to treat inflammatory bowel disease.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Instruct the client to obtain annual immunizations.
Monitor the client for hypotension.
Monitor the client frequently for episodes of hypoglycemia.
Instruct the client to consume a diet high in calcium.
The Correct Answer is D
Long-term use of prednisone can lead to a decrease in bone density and an increased risk of osteoporosis.
Consuming a diet high in calcium can help to maintain bone health and reduce the risk of osteoporosis.
Choice A is wrong because while it is important for individuals taking prednisone to receive immunizations, they should not receive live vaccines due to the immunosuppressive effects of prednisone.
Choice B is wrong because prednisone can cause hypertension, not hypotension.
Choice C is wrong because prednisone can cause hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation

Methimazole is an antithyroid medication that controls the overproduction of thyroid hormone in Graves’ disease.
One of the symptoms of Graves’ disease is difficulty sleeping due to the overproduction of thyroid hormone.
After taking methimazole for 2 months, the client’s thyroid hormone levels should decrease, leading to an improvement in sleep.
Choice A is wrong because weight loss is a symptom of Graves’ disease due to the overproduction of thyroid hormone.
Methimazole controls the overproduction of thyroid hormone and may lead to weight gain.
Choice B is wrong because warmer skin is a symptom of Graves’ disease due to the overproduction of thyroid hormone.
Methimazole controls the overproduction of thyroid hormone and may lead to cooler skin.
Choice C is wrong because an increase in pulse rate is a symptom of Graves’ disease due to the overproduction of thyroid hormone.
Methimazole controls the overproduction of thyroid hormone and may lead to a decrease in pulse rate.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant medication and is not administered subcutaneously.
The nurse should clarify this prescription with the provider before administering it.
Choice A is wrong because tetracycline can be prescribed in doses of 1 g orally every 6 hours.
Choice C is wrong because Penicillin G can be prescribed in doses of 5,000,000 units intramuscularly every 4 hours.
Choice D is wrong because Zoledronate can be prescribed as a single intravenous dose of 5 mg.
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