A nurse is monitoring for an infusion reaction for a client who is receiving a dose of IV amphotericin B. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an acute infusion reaction?

Pedal edema.

Fever.

Dry cough.

Hyperglycemia.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

This is because fever is a common sign of an acute infusion reaction that can occur when receiving IV amphotericin B. An acute infusion reaction is caused by the release of pro-inflammatory cytokines from the fungal cell wall disruption by amphotericin B. It usually occurs within the first hour of infusion and can be prevented by administering pre-medications such as antipyretics, antihistamines, or corticosteroids.

Choice A. Pedal edema is wrong because it is not a typical sign of an acute infusion reaction.

Pedal edema may indicate fluid overload, heart failure, or renal impairment, which are not directly related to amphotericin B infusion.

Choice C. Dry cough is wrong because it is not a typical sign of an acute infusion reaction.

Dry cough may indicate an allergic reaction, pulmonary infection, or interstitial lung disease, which are not directly related to amphotericin B infusion. Choice D. Hyperglycemia is wrong because it is not a typical sign of an acute infusion reaction.

Hyperglycemia may indicate diabetes mellitus, steroid use, or stress response, which are not directly related to amphotericin B infusion.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Carbamazepine is an anticonvulsant medication that is used to treat seizures and nerve pain. It works by reducing the activity of certain nerve cells in the brain.

Choice A is wrong because beclomethasone is a corticosteroid that is used to treat asthma and allergic rhinitis. It does not interact with carbamazepine.

Choice B is correct because the estrogen-progestin combination is a hormonal contraceptive that is used to prevent pregnancy and regulate menstrual cycles. It interacts with carbamazepine because carbamazepine can increase the breakdown of estrogen and progestin in the body, making them less effective. The nurse should instruct the client to use an alternative or additional method of birth control while taking carbamazepine.

Choice C is wrong because diphenhydramine is an antihistamine that is used to treat allergies, motion sickness, and insomnia. It does not interact with carbamazepine.

Choice D is wrong because the nicotine transdermal system is a nicotine replacement therapy that is used to help people quit smoking. It does not interact with carbamazepine.

A. Fentanyl transmucosal. B. Lidocaine patch. C. Morphine tablet. D. Naloxone IV.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

This is because fentanyl transmucosal is a fast-acting opioid that can be used for breakthrough pain in patients who are already receiving opioids for chronic pain. Breakthrough pain is a sudden and severe increase in pain that occurs despite the use of regular pain medication. Fentanyl transmucosal has a rapid onset of action (1-3 minutes) and a short duration of effect (1-2 hours), which makes it suitable for treating episodic pain.

Choice B. Lidocaine patch is wrong because lidocaine patch is a topical anesthetic that can be used for localized neuropathic pain, but not for acute or severe pain.

Choice C. Morphine tablet is wrong because morphine tablet is a long-acting opioid that can be used for chronic pain, but not for breakthrough pain. Morphine tablet has a slow onset of action (30-60 minutes) and a long duration of effect (3-4 hours), which makes it unsuitable for treating episodic pain.

Choice D. Naloxone IV is wrong because naloxone IV is an opioid antagonist that can reverse the effects of opioids, but not relieve pain.

Naloxone IV can cause

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A nurse is monitoring for an infusion reaction for a client who is receiving a dose of IV amphotericin B. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an acute infusion reaction?

Nursing Test Bank

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