A nurse is monitoring for an infusion reaction for a client who is receiving a dose of IV amphotericin B. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an acute infusion reaction?
Pedal edema.
Fever.
Dry cough.
Hyperglycemia.
The Correct Answer is B
This is because fever is a common sign of an acute infusion reaction that can occur when receiving IV amphotericin B. An acute infusion reaction is caused by the release of pro-inflammatory cytokines from the fungal cell wall disruption by amphotericin B. It usually occurs within the first hour of infusion and can be prevented by administering pre-medications such as antipyretics, antihistamines, or corticosteroids.
Choice A. Pedal edema is wrong because it is not a typical sign of an acute infusion reaction.
Pedal edema may indicate fluid overload, heart failure, or renal impairment, which are not directly related to amphotericin B infusion.
Choice C. Dry cough is wrong because it is not a typical sign of an acute infusion reaction.
Dry cough may indicate an allergic reaction, pulmonary infection, or interstitial lung disease, which are not directly related to amphotericin B infusion. Choice D. Hyperglycemia is wrong because it is not a typical sign of an acute infusion reaction.
Hyperglycemia may indicate diabetes mellitus, steroid use, or stress response, which are not directly related to amphotericin B infusion.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["0.4"]
Explanation
To calculate the amount of heparin to administer, use the formula:
mL of heparin=units available units ordered×1mL available
Substituting the values given in the question, we get:
mL of heparin=100004000×11=0.4
Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.4 mL of heparin.
Normal ranges for heparin therapy vary depending on the condition being treated and the laboratory method used to measure APTT.
A general range is 60 to 80 seconds or 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A therapeutic effect of naloxone is the reversal of opioid-induced respiratory depression, which is one of the most dangerous complications of opioid overdose. Naloxone works by binding to opioid receptors, displacing opioids, and restoring normal respiratory drive. An increase in respiratory rate after administration indicates that naloxone is effective.
Choice A is wrong because decreased blood pressure is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone.
In fact, naloxone can cause hypertension (high blood pressure) as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.
Choice B is wrong because decreased nausea is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone. Nausea is a common side effect of morphine, but naloxone does not affect it directly.
Naloxone can actually cause nausea and vomiting as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.
Choice D is wrong because increased pain relief is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone.
Pain relief is a desired effect of morphine, but naloxone antagonizes it by blocking the opioid receptors.
Naloxone can cause pain and discomfort as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.
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