A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an intravenous heparin infusion. When reviewing the client's medical records, the nurse discovers that the client has a previous diagnosis of heparin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). The nurse immediately stops the heparin infusion and notifies the physician. Which medication should the nurse anticipate will be ordered to neutralize the remaining heparin in the client's bloodstream?
Vitamin K
Enoxaparin
Warfarin
Protamine sulfate
The Correct Answer is D
A. Vitamin K is an antidote for warfarin, not heparin.
B. Enoxaparin is a low molecular weight heparin and is contraindicated in patients with a history of HIT.
C. Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant used for long-term anticoagulation therapy and is not used to neutralize heparin.
D. Protamine sulfate is the specific antidote for heparin and is used to neutralize its effects.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Romiplostim does not increase the production of ADAMTS-13; it is used to increase platelet counts.
B. Romiplostim does not prevent platelet destruction in the spleen; it works by stimulating platelet production.
C. Romiplostim does not prevent platelets from binding with heparin; it is not used for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia.
D. Romiplostim is a thrombopoietin receptor agonist that stimulates the bone marrow to increase platelet production, which is its primary mechanism of action in treating ITP.
Correct Answer is ["A","D","F","G"]
Explanation
A. Administering furosemide 40 mg via IV push once is appropriate for treating fluid overload, as evidenced by pitting edema and crackles in the lungs, common in heart failure.
B. An IV infusion of normal saline (NS) at 150 mL/hr is not appropriate for this client as it can exacerbate fluid overload and worsen heart failure symptoms.
C. Administering digoxin 0.25 mg via IV push NOW may be indicated, but considering the client's low pulse rate (55/min), caution is necessary due to the risk of digoxin toxicity and bradycardia.
D. Monitoring daily weights is crucial for assessing fluid balance in heart failure patients and detecting any changes in fluid status.
E. Calling a code STEMI is not appropriate as the client does not exhibit signs of a STEMI; troponin levels are not elevated, and there is no indication of an acute myocardial infarction.
F. Monitoring strict intake and output helps in managing fluid balance and ensuring accurate assessment of the client's fluid status.
G. Preparing the client for an echocardiogram is appropriate to assess cardiac function and evaluate the severity of heart failure.
H. Radiofrequency catheter ablation is not indicated for this client as it is typically used to treat arrhythmias, not heart failure or fluid overload.
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