A client is brought to the emergency department by ambulance with chest pain 10/10 which began 30 minutes prior. The client's troponin levels are 1.20 ng/mL and an ST-elevation is noted on the electrocardiogram (ECG). The nurse understands that the priority intervention for this patient is which of the following?
Transport the patient to the cardiac catheterization lab for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI).
Begin aggressive diuresis with furosemide and obtain an order for digoxin.
Prepare the patient for synchronized cardioversion and radiofrequency catheter ablation.
Administer gemfibrozil (Lopid) while preparing the client for a cardiac stress test.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Transporting the patient to the cardiac catheterization lab for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is the priority intervention for a patient with an ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). PCI is the preferred treatment to restore blood flow to the affected coronary artery.
B. Aggressive diuresis and digoxin are not appropriate for the acute management of a STEMI. Diuresis may be used in cases of heart failure but is not the immediate priority.
C. Synchronized cardioversion and radiofrequency catheter ablation are treatments for certain arrhythmias but are not indicated for the acute management of STEMI.
D. Administering gemfibrozil, a lipid-lowering agent, and preparing for a stress test are not appropriate interventions in the acute setting of a STEMI. Immediate reperfusion therapy is necessary.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. NSTEMI would present with elevated troponin levels indicating myocardial injury, which is not the case here.
B. Stable angina occurs predictably with exertion and is relieved by rest or nitroglycerin.
C. STEMI is characterized by ST-elevation on the ECG and elevated troponin levels, indicating significant myocardial injury.
D. Unstable angina presents with chest pain that occurs at rest or with minimal exertion and is not predictable. The presence of T-wave inversion and normal troponin levels is consistent with this diagnosis.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Intrascapular pain and indigestion can be atypical presentations of myocardial infarction, particularly in women.
B. Pain and swelling in one lower limb suggest deep vein thrombosis (DVT), not myocardial infarction.
C. Elevated serum creatinine indicates kidney dysfunction but is not a direct manifestation of myocardial infarction.
D. Crackles in the lungs and elevated temperature suggest possible infection or heart failure exacerbation, but not specifically myocardial infarction.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.