A client in an urgent care clinic states "My heart feels like it is skipping beats every now and then." A 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) shows a extra P-wave. The nurse should understand that this ECG finding represents which of the following conditions?

Atrial fibrillation

Atrial flutter

Premature atrial contractions

Stable angina

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Atrial fibrillation is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm and absence of distinct P-waves.
B. Atrial flutter typically presents with "saw-tooth" flutter waves rather than extra P-waves.
C. Premature atrial contractions (PACs) are identified by the presence of extra P-waves on an ECG.
D. Stable angina is related to chest pain and does not have specific ECG findings such as extra P-waves.

Nursing Test Bank

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Plasmapheresis in TTP aims to remove abnormal blood components, not ADAMTS-13. In fact, plasmapheresis helps replenish ADAMTS-13.
B. The primary goal of plasmapheresis in TTP is to remove large von Willebrand factor molecules that are causing platelet aggregation and clot formation.
C. Removing macrophages from the spleen is not the objective of plasmapheresis.
D. Plasmapheresis is usually performed daily until clinical and laboratory parameters improve, not just once a week.

A. Administer furosemide 40 mg via IV push once. B. Begin an IV infusion of normal saline (NS) at 150 mL/hr. C. Administer digoxin 0.25 mg via IV push NOW. D. Monitor daily weights. E. Call a code STEMI. F. Monitor strict intake and output. G. Prepare the client for an echocardiogram. H. Prepare the client for a radiofrequency catheter ablation.

Correct Answer is ["A","D","F","G"]

Explanation

A. Administering furosemide 40 mg via IV push once is appropriate for treating fluid overload, as evidenced by pitting edema and crackles in the lungs, common in heart failure.

B. An IV infusion of normal saline (NS) at 150 mL/hr is not appropriate for this client as it can exacerbate fluid overload and worsen heart failure symptoms.

C. Administering digoxin 0.25 mg via IV push NOW may be indicated, but considering the client's low pulse rate (55/min), caution is necessary due to the risk of digoxin toxicity and bradycardia.

D. Monitoring daily weights is crucial for assessing fluid balance in heart failure patients and detecting any changes in fluid status.

E. Calling a code STEMI is not appropriate as the client does not exhibit signs of a STEMI; troponin levels are not elevated, and there is no indication of an acute myocardial infarction.

F. Monitoring strict intake and output helps in managing fluid balance and ensuring accurate assessment of the client's fluid status.

G. Preparing the client for an echocardiogram is appropriate to assess cardiac function and evaluate the severity of heart failure.

H. Radiofrequency catheter ablation is not indicated for this client as it is typically used to treat arrhythmias, not heart failure or fluid overload.

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A client in an urgent care clinic states "My heart feels like it is skipping beats every now and then." A 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) shows a extra P-wave. The nurse should understand that this ECG finding represents which of the following conditions?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) and will begin plasmapheresis ment should the nurse plan to include when educating the client about this treatment?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Correct Answer is ["A","D","F","G"]

Explanation

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A nurse is providing education to a client with heart failure who will begin taking digoxin daily at home. Which of the following statements made by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? (Select all that apply.)

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