A client in an urgent care clinic states "My heart feels like it is skipping beats every now and then." A 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) shows a extra P-wave. The nurse should understand that this ECG finding represents which of the following conditions?
Atrial fibrillation
Atrial flutter
Premature atrial contractions
Stable angina
The Correct Answer is C
A. Atrial fibrillation is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm and absence of distinct P-waves.
B. Atrial flutter typically presents with "saw-tooth" flutter waves rather than extra P-waves.
C. Premature atrial contractions (PACs) are identified by the presence of extra P-waves on an ECG.
D. Stable angina is related to chest pain and does not have specific ECG findings such as extra P-waves.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","D","F","G"]
Explanation
A. Administering furosemide 40 mg via IV push once is appropriate for treating fluid overload, as evidenced by pitting edema and crackles in the lungs, common in heart failure.
B. An IV infusion of normal saline (NS) at 150 mL/hr is not appropriate for this client as it can exacerbate fluid overload and worsen heart failure symptoms.
C. Administering digoxin 0.25 mg via IV push NOW may be indicated, but considering the client's low pulse rate (55/min), caution is necessary due to the risk of digoxin toxicity and bradycardia.
D. Monitoring daily weights is crucial for assessing fluid balance in heart failure patients and detecting any changes in fluid status.
E. Calling a code STEMI is not appropriate as the client does not exhibit signs of a STEMI; troponin levels are not elevated, and there is no indication of an acute myocardial infarction.
F. Monitoring strict intake and output helps in managing fluid balance and ensuring accurate assessment of the client's fluid status.
G. Preparing the client for an echocardiogram is appropriate to assess cardiac function and evaluate the severity of heart failure.
H. Radiofrequency catheter ablation is not indicated for this client as it is typically used to treat arrhythmias, not heart failure or fluid overload.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Pleural effusion may be a complication of heart failure but does not directly explain the decreased urine output and elevated serum creatinine.
B. Myocardial infarction would present with different symptoms, such as chest pain, rather than decreased urine output and elevated creatinine.
C. Cardiorenal syndrome refers to the interdependence of the heart and kidneys, where chronic heart failure leads to worsening kidney function, causing symptoms like decreased urine output and elevated serum creatinine.
D. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is related to the use of heparin and presents with low platelet counts, not decreased urine output and elevated creatinine.
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