A nurse is caring for a client who is postpartum and asks, "When will my breast milk come in?" Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
In 3 to 5 days after delivery
In 6 to 8 days after delivery
Within 2 days after delivery
In about 10 days after delivery
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: In 3 to 5 days after delivery is correct, as this is the average time for breast milk production to begin after birth. Breast milk production is stimulated by the drop in progesterone levels that occurs after the placenta is delivered, as well as by the suckling of the baby. The nurse should encourage the client to breastfeed frequently and effectively to promote milk production and prevent engorgement.
Choice B reason: In 6 to 8 days after delivery is incorrect, as this is a longer than average time for breast milk production to begin after birth. Breast milk production usually begins within the first week after birth, although it may vary depending on individual factors. The nurse should assess the client for any factors that may delay or inhibit milk production, such as stress, fatigue, pain, or medication.
Choice C reason: Within 2 days after delivery is incorrect, as this is a shorter than average time for breast milk production to begin after birth. Breast milk production usually begins within the first week after birth, although it may vary depending on individual factors. The nurse should educate the client that before breast milk comes in, the breasts produce colostrum, which is a thick, yellowish fluid that contains antibodies and nutrients for the baby.
Choice D reason: In about 10 days after delivery is incorrect, as this is a longer than average time for breast milk production to begin after birth. Breast milk production usually begins within the first week after birth, although it may vary depending on individual factors. The nurse should assess the client for any factors that may delay or inhibit milk production, such as stress, fatigue, pain, or medication.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Three fingerbreadths above the umbilicus is incorrect, as this position indicates a higher than expected fundal height for a client who is 12 hr postpartum. The fundus is normally at the level of the umbilicus immediately after birth and then descends about one fingerbreadth per day. A high fundal height can indicate uterine atony, retained placental fragments, or bladder distension.
Choice B reason: One fingerbreadth above the symphysis pubis is incorrect, as this position indicates a lower than expected fundal height for a client who is 12 hr postpartum. The fundus is normally at the level of the umbilicus immediately after birth and then descends about one finger-breadth per day. A low fundal height can indicate uterine inversion, which is a rare but life-threatening complication.
Choice C reason: At the level of the umbilicus is correct, as this position indicates a normal and expected fundal height for a client who is 12 hr postpartum. The fundus is normally at the level of the umbilicus immediately after birth and then descends about one finger-breadth per day. A midline and firm fundus indicates adequate uterine contraction and involution.
Choice D reason: To the right of the umbilicus is incorrect, as this position indicates a deviated fundus for a client who is 12 hr postpartum. The fundus should be midline and not displaced to either side. A deviated fundus can indicate bladder distension, which can interfere with uterine contraction and involution. The nurse should assist the client to empty their bladder and reassess the fundal position.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice D reason: A client who has preeclampsia and reports epigastric pain and unresolved headache should be reported to the RN immediately, as these are signs of severe preeclampsia and impending eclampsia, which can lead to seizures, coma, and death. The client may need anticonvulsant medication, magnesium sulfate infusion, and delivery of the fetus.
Choice A reason: A client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and is experiencing irregular, frequent contractions is tearful may have preterm labor, which should be monitored and treated accordingly. However, this is not as urgent as choice D, as the contractions may subside with hydration, rest, or tocolytic medication.
Choice B reason: A client who has preeclampsia has 2+ patellar reflexes and 2+ proteinuria may have mild preeclampsia, which should be managed with antihypertensive medication, bed rest, and fetal monitoring. However, this is not as urgent as choice D, as the reflexes and proteinuria are not indicative of severe preeclampsia or eclampsia.
Choice C reason: A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and receiving terbutaline reports fine tremors may have a common side effect of terbutaline, which is a beta-adrenergic agonist that relaxes uterine smooth muscle and inhibits contractions. However, this is not as urgent as choice D, as the tremors are usually transient and benign. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs, blood glucose, and fetal heart rate.
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