A nurse is collecting data from a client who is postpartum. Which of the following findings should alert the nurse to the possibility of a postpartum complication?
Urinary output 2,000 mL/12 hr
Temperature 100.4 F for two days
Chills shortly following delivery
Fundus at umbilicus level
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason:
A urinary output of 2,000 mL/12 hr is normal for a postpartum client, as the body eliminates excess fluid accumulated during pregnancy.
Choice B reason:
A temperature of 100.4 F for two days indicates a possible infection, such as endometritis or mastitis, and requires further evaluation and treatment.
Choice C reason:
Chills shortly following delivery are common and benign and are caused by hormonal changes and fluid shifts.
Choice D reason:
A fundus at the umbilicus level is expected for a postpartum client and indicates that the uterus is involuting properly.

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice D reason: A client who has preeclampsia and reports epigastric pain and unresolved headache should be reported to the RN immediately, as these are signs of severe preeclampsia and impending eclampsia, which can lead to seizures, coma, and death. The client may need anticonvulsant medication, magnesium sulfate infusion, and delivery of the fetus.
Choice A reason: A client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and is experiencing irregular, frequent contractions is tearful may have preterm labor, which should be monitored and treated accordingly. However, this is not as urgent as choice D, as the contractions may subside with hydration, rest, or tocolytic medication.
Choice B reason: A client who has preeclampsia has 2+ patellar reflexes and 2+ proteinuria may have mild preeclampsia, which should be managed with antihypertensive medication, bed rest, and fetal monitoring. However, this is not as urgent as choice D, as the reflexes and proteinuria are not indicative of severe preeclampsia or eclampsia.
Choice C reason: A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and receiving terbutaline reports fine tremors may have a common side effect of terbutaline, which is a beta-adrenergic agonist that relaxes uterine smooth muscle and inhibits contractions. However, this is not as urgent as choice D, as the tremors are usually transient and benign. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs, blood glucose, and fetal heart rate.

Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Fundus soft, 2 fingerbreadths below the umbilicus is incorrect, as this finding indicates uterine atony and subinvolution. The fundus is the upper part of the uterus that can be palpated through the abdomen after birth. The fundus should be firm and midline to indicate adequate uterine contraction and involution. A soft or boggy fundus can increase the risk of hemorrhage and infection.
Choice B reason: Fundus firm, 1 fingerbreadth below the umbilicus is correct, as this finding indicates normal uterine contraction and involution. The fundus is normally at the level of the umbilicus immediately after birth and then descends about one fingerbreadth per day. A firm and midline fundus can prevent excessive bleeding and promote healing.
Choice C reason: Fundus firm, 4 fingerbreadths above the umbilicus is incorrect, as this finding indicates a higher than expected fundal height for a client who is 24 hr postpartum. The fundus is normally at the level of the umbilicus immediately after birth and then descends about one fingerbreadth per day. A high fundal height can indicate uterine atony, retained placental fragments, or bladder distension.
Choice D reason: Fundus soft, to the right of the umbilicus is incorrect, as this finding indicates uterine atony and bladder distension. The fundus should be firm and midline to indicate adequate uterine contraction and involution. A deviated fundus can indicate bladder distension, which can interfere with uterine contraction and involution and increase the risk of hemorrhage and infection.
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