A nurse is collecting data from a client who is 12 hr postpartum following a spontaneous vaginal delivery. The nurse should expect to find the uterine fundus at which of the following positions on the client's abdomen?
Three fingerbreadths above the umbilicus
One fingerbreadth above the symphysis pubis
At the level of the umbilicus
To the right of the umbilicus
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Three fingerbreadths above the umbilicus is incorrect, as this position indicates a higher than expected fundal height for a client who is 12 hr postpartum. The fundus is normally at the level of the umbilicus immediately after birth and then descends about one fingerbreadth per day. A high fundal height can indicate uterine atony, retained placental fragments, or bladder distension.
Choice B reason: One fingerbreadth above the symphysis pubis is incorrect, as this position indicates a lower than expected fundal height for a client who is 12 hr postpartum. The fundus is normally at the level of the umbilicus immediately after birth and then descends about one finger-breadth per day. A low fundal height can indicate uterine inversion, which is a rare but life-threatening complication.
Choice C reason: At the level of the umbilicus is correct, as this position indicates a normal and expected fundal height for a client who is 12 hr postpartum. The fundus is normally at the level of the umbilicus immediately after birth and then descends about one finger-breadth per day. A midline and firm fundus indicates adequate uterine contraction and involution.
Choice D reason: To the right of the umbilicus is incorrect, as this position indicates a deviated fundus for a client who is 12 hr postpartum. The fundus should be midline and not displaced to either side. A deviated fundus can indicate bladder distension, which can interfere with uterine contraction and involution. The nurse should assist the client to empty their bladder and reassess the fundal position.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: A precipitous birth is a delivery that occurs in less than 3 hours from the onset of labor. This can cause uterine atony, which is the failure of the uterus to contract and compress the blood vessels after the placenta is delivered. Uterine atony is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage²³.
Choice B reason: A small for gestational age newborn is not a risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage. It may be associated with other conditions, such as placental insufficiency or intrauterine growth restriction, but these do not directly increase the risk of bleeding after delivery.
Choice C reason: A two-vessel umbilical cord is a cord that has one artery and one vein instead of the normal two arteries and one vein. This can be a marker for congenital anomalies or placental abnormalities, but it does not increase the risk of postpartum hemorrhage by itself.
Choice D reason: Gestational hypertension is a condition where the blood pressure rises above 140/90 mm Hg after 20 weeks of pregnancy. It can lead to complications such as preeclampsia, eclampsia, or HELLP syndrome, which can affect the clotting system and cause bleeding disorders. However, gestational hypertension alone does not increase the risk of postpartum hemorrhage unless it is associated with these severe conditions¹⁴.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Check the client's temperature every 4 hr is incorrect, as this action is not frequent enough for a client who had an amniotomy. The nurse should check the client's temperature every 2 hr after an amniotomy, as there is an increased risk of infection due to the rupture of membranes. The nurse should also monitor for signs of chorioamnionitis, such as foul-smelling amniotic fluid, maternal tachycardia, or fetal tachycardia.
Choice B reason: Remind the client to bear down with each contraction is incorrect, as this action is not appropriate for a client who is in the active phase of the first stage of labor. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid bearing down or pushing until they are in the second stage of labor, when the cervix is fully dilated and effaced. Bearing down too early can cause cervical edema, lacerations, or exhaustion.
Choice C reason: Maintain the client in the lithotomy position is incorrect, as this action is not optimal for a client who is in the active phase of the first stage of labor. The lithotomy position is a supine position with the legs elevated and abducted, which can reduce blood flow to the uterus and placenta, increase perineal edema, and limit pelvic outlet diameter. The nurse should encourage the client to change positions frequently and use upright or lateral positions that can enhance uterine contractility, fetal descent, and maternal comfort.
Choice D reason: Encourage the client to empty the bladder every 2 hr is correct, as this action can promote labor progress and prevent bladder distension and infection. The nurse should assist the client to void every 2 hr after an amniotomy, as there may be decreased sensation of bladder fullness due to pressure from the fetal head. A full bladder can interfere with uterine contractions, fetal descent, and cervical dilation.
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