A nurse is caring for a client who is 6 hours postpartum. The client is Rh-negative and her newborn is Rh-positive. The client asks why an indirect Coombs test was ordered by the provider. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
"It detects positive antibodies in the mother's blood."
"It detects Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood."
"It determines if kernicterus will occur in the newborn."
"It determines the presence of maternal antibodies in the newborn's blood."
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: The indirect Coombs test is used to screen for antibodies in the mother's blood that could potentially cause hemolytic disease in the newborn if they are Rh-positive. A positive result indicates that the mother has developed antibodies that could cross the placenta and attack the red blood cells of an Rh-positive fetus.
Choice B reason: The indirect Coombs test does not detect Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood. Instead, it is used to detect antibodies in the mother's blood. The direct Coombs test is used to detect antibodies that are already attached to the red blood cells of the newborn.
Choice C reason: The indirect Coombs test does not determine if kernicterus will occur in the newborn. Kernicterus is a form of brain damage that can result from very high levels of bilirubin in a baby's blood. It is not directly related to the presence of antibodies detected by the indirect Coombs test.
Choice D reason: The indirect Coombs test does not determine the presence of maternal antibodies in the newborn's blood. This is assessed by the direct Coombs test, which checks for antibodies bound to the surface of the newborn's red blood cells, indicating that the immune system is attacking them.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice a reason:
A male condom is a barrier method of contraception that is typically easy to use and accessible. It has the added benefit of providing protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs). However, its effectiveness can be compromised by improper use or breakage. With typical use, male condoms are about 85% effective.
Choice b reason:
A diaphragm with spermicide is another barrier method that can be used to prevent pregnancy. The diaphragm covers the cervix and the spermicide kills or immobilizes sperm. The effectiveness of a diaphragm with spermicide is generally lower than some other methods, with typical use effectiveness around 88%.
Choice c reason:
An intrauterine device (IUD) is a small device inserted into the uterus by a healthcare provider. IUDs come in two types: hormonal and copper. Both types are highly effective, with over 99% effectiveness. They are long-acting, reversible, and do not require daily attention, which contributes to their reliability.
Choice d reason:
An oral contraceptive, also known as the birth control pill, is a popular method of contraception that requires the user to take a pill at the same time every day. The effectiveness of the pill can be high, but because it relies on user adherence, its typical use effectiveness is around 91%.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice a reason:
While there is always a risk of introducing infection with an internal examination, this is not the primary concern with placenta previa. Infections are a risk with any invasive procedure, but the precautions taken during a typical internal examination minimize this risk.
Choice b reason:
Initiating preterm labor is a concern with any manipulation of the cervix or uterus during pregnancy. However, at 37 weeks, the pregnancy is considered early-term, and the risk of preterm labor is not the primary concern in the context of placenta previa.
Choice c reason:
The primary reason for avoiding an internal examination in a client with placenta previa is the risk of profound bleeding. With placenta previa, the placenta covers part or all of the cervix. An internal examination could disturb the placenta and lead to significant hemorrhage, which can be life-threatening for both the mother and the fetus.
Choice d reason:
While there is a risk of rupturing the membranes during an internal examination, this is not the primary concern with placenta previa. The main issue is the potential for causing significant bleeding due to the placenta's location over the cervix.
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