A nurse is caring for a client who is 24 hr postoperative. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take to reduce the risk of atelectasis?
Administer morphine intermittent IV bolus every 2 hr to the client.
Turn the client from side to side every 4 hr.
Provide the client with nasotracheal suctioning for 15 to 20 seconds at a time.
Instruct the client to hold the inhaled breath for 2 to 5 seconds with incentive spirometer use.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Administering morphine intermittent IV bolus every 2 hours is not a suitable intervention for reducing the risk of atelectasis. While pain management is important postoperatively, morphine can depress respiratory function and increase the risk of atelectasis.
Choice B rationale:
Turning the client from side to side every 4 hours is important for preventing pressure ulcers and promoting comfort, but it is not a specific intervention for reducing the risk of atelectasis.
Choice C rationale:
Providing nasotracheal suctioning for 15 to 20 seconds at a time is not a preventive measure for atelectasis. Suctioning may be necessary for airway clearance in certain situations, but it does not address the root cause of atelectasis.
Choice D rationale:
This is the correct choice. Instructing the client to hold the inhaled breath for 2 to 5 seconds with incentive spirometer use is an effective intervention to reduce the risk of atelectasis. Incentive spirometry helps to expand the lungs and improve ventilation, preventing atelectasis after surgery.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A defined area of cool, boggy skin is not indicative of a stage 2 pressure injury. Stage 2 pressure injuries involve partial-thickness skin loss, usually appearing as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed, without slough or bruising.
Choice B rationale:
A shallow crater involving the epidermis is characteristic of a stage 2 pressure injury. It presents as a partial-thickness skin loss with the loss of the epidermis, and the wound may be superficial and appear as an abrasion, blister, or shallow ulcer.
Choice C rationale:
The reddened area that does not blanch is more indicative of an early-stage pressure injury (Stage 1). In Stage 1, the skin remains intact, but there is non-blanch-able erythema indicating damage to the skin and underlying tissue.
Choice D rationale:
Undermining or tunneling of the skin is not specific to stage 2 pressure injuries. These features may be observed in more advanced stages of pressure injuries, such as stages 3 and 4, where there is full-thickness skin loss with damage to the subcutaneous tissue and underlying structures.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Crackles are adventitious lung sounds that can be heard on auscultation and are commonly associated with pneumonia. They are caused by the movement of air through fluid-filled or collapsed alveoli, indicating inflammation and infection in the lungs.
Choice B rationale:
Crepitus is a different respiratory finding and is not typically associated with pneumonia. Crepitus is a crackling or grating sensation that can be felt under the skin, often caused by subcutaneous emphysema or gas trapped in the tissues, not within the lungs.
Choice C rationale:
Stridor is a harsh, high-pitched sound heard during inspiration and is usually indicative of upper airway obstruction, not pneumonia. It can be caused by conditions such as croup or anaphylaxis.
Choice D rationale:
Decreased fremitus is not a specific manifestation of pneumonia. Fremitus is the vibration felt when the patient speaks and is transmitted through the chest wall. In pneumonia, increased fremitus may be observed due to the consolidation of lung tissue with fluid or pus, not decreased fremitus.
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