A nurse is assessing a client's understanding of a surgical procedure prior to witnessing their signature on the informed consent form. The nurse determines that the client does not understand what the procedure will involve. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Answer: D. The nurse refers a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease for palliative care services:

Rationale:

A) The nurse files an incident report regarding a medication error:

Filing an incident report about a medication error is an important action for ensuring safety and quality improvement within the healthcare setting. However, it is primarily a procedural and administrative task rather than an act of direct advocacy for an individual client's needs or rights.

B) The nurse provides wound care to a client at the time promised to the client:

Providing wound care as promised demonstrates reliability and adherence to care plans, which is essential for trust and effective nursing practice. While this action shows respect for the client's needs and preferences, it does not specifically address the broader role of advocacy, which often involves intervening on behalf of the client's best interests in more complex situations.

C) The nurse declines to inform a client's neighbor about the client's prognosis:

Maintaining client confidentiality by not sharing private information with unauthorized individuals is a fundamental aspect of ethical nursing practice. This action protects the client's privacy but is more about upholding legal and ethical standards than actively advocating for the client's overall well-being or specific needs.

D) The nurse refers a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease for palliative care services:

Referring a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) to palliative care services exemplifies client advocacy. This action recognizes the client's need for comprehensive support, focusing on improving quality of life, managing symptoms, and providing holistic care. It involves proactive steps to address the client's complex health needs, ensuring they receive appropriate and compassionate care beyond standard medical treatment.

Choice A rationale:

A defined area of cool, boggy skin is not indicative of a stage 2 pressure injury. Stage 2 pressure injuries involve partial-thickness skin loss, usually appearing as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed, without slough or bruising.

Choice B rationale:

A shallow crater involving the epidermis is characteristic of a stage 2 pressure injury. It presents as a partial-thickness skin loss with the loss of the epidermis, and the wound may be superficial and appear as an abrasion, blister, or shallow ulcer.

Choice C rationale:

The reddened area that does not blanch is more indicative of an early-stage pressure injury (Stage 1). In Stage 1, the skin remains intact, but there is non-blanch-able erythema indicating damage to the skin and underlying tissue.

Choice D rationale:

Undermining or tunneling of the skin is not specific to stage 2 pressure injuries. These features may be observed in more advanced stages of pressure injuries, such as stages 3 and 4, where there is full-thickness skin loss with damage to the subcutaneous tissue and underlying structures.