A nurse is assessing a client's understanding of a surgical procedure prior to witnessing their signature on the informed consent form. The nurse determines that the client does not understand what the procedure will involve. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Provide teaching about the surgical procedure for the client.
Instruct the client's spouse to sign the consent form.
Read the consent form to the client using words the client will understand.
Contact the provider who will be performing the procedure.
The Correct Answer is D
Answer: D. Contact the provider who will be performing the procedure.
Rationale:
A) Provide teaching about the surgical procedure for the client:
While nurses play an essential role in patient education, it is the responsibility of the healthcare provider performing the procedure to ensure the patient fully understands the details, risks, and benefits. Nurses can clarify information but should not provide the initial comprehensive explanation of the procedure.
B) Instruct the client's spouse to sign the consent form:
The client is the one who needs to provide informed consent, not the spouse, unless the client is legally unable to do so. In such cases, legal documentation, such as a power of attorney, is required. Instructing the spouse to sign without proper authorization is inappropriate and potentially legally problematic.
C) Read the consent form to the client using words the client will understand:
While simplifying the language of the consent form can help, it is not sufficient if the client does not fully understand the procedure. Full understanding requires a detailed discussion about the procedure, risks, benefits, and alternatives, which should be done by the provider performing the procedure.
D) Contact the provider who will be performing the procedure:
The provider performing the procedure has the responsibility to ensure the client understands all aspects of the surgery. Contacting the provider to provide a thorough explanation ensures that the client receives accurate and complete information, allowing for truly informed consent.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Administering phenytoin IV no faster than 100 mg/min is crucial to prevent adverse effects such as cardiovascular collapse or severe hypotension. Rapid administration of phenytoin can cause cardiac arrhythmias and should be avoided.
Choice B rationale:
Monitoring plasma phenytoin levels to establish the therapeutic range is a necessary action in managing the client's seizure disorder, but it does not pertain to the specific administration of phenytoin via intermittent bolus.
Choice C rationale:
Adding the medication to the existing IV solution is not appropriate for phenytoin administration. Phenytoin should be administered separately and not mixed with other IV solutions to maintain its stability and prevent interactions.
Choice D rationale:
Monitoring the client for hypertension is not directly related to the administration of phenytoin via intermittent bolus. Hypertension is not a common adverse effect of this medication. However, blood pressure should be monitored as part of routine care for any client on antiepileptic therapy.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A PT (Prothrombin Time) of 12 seconds is not indicative of the effectiveness of heparin therapy for a pulmonary embolism. PT measures the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and it is more relevant to monitor in patients on warfarin therapy.
Choice B rationale:
The aPTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time) of 75 seconds is the correct choice as it reflects the effectiveness of unfractionated heparin therapy. Heparin works by inhibiting clotting factors in the intrinsic pathway, and the aPTT is used to monitor heparin's anticoagulant effect. The normal range for aPTT is typically 25-35 seconds.
Choice C rationale:
An INR (International Normalized Ratio) of 1.1 is not the appropriate parameter to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. INR is primarily used to monitor the effectiveness of oral anticoagulants like warfarin, not heparin.
Choice D rationale:
The platelet count of 200,000/mm² is not a suitable parameter to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Platelet count is important for assessing the risk of bleeding or clotting disorders but does not directly measure the impact of heparin on clotting factors.
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