A nurse is assessing a client's understanding of a surgical procedure prior to witnessing their signature on the informed consent form. The nurse determines that the client does not understand what the procedure will involve. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Provide teaching about the surgical procedure for the client.
Instruct the client's spouse to sign the consent form.
Read the consent form to the client using words the client will understand.
Contact the provider who will be performing the procedure.
The Correct Answer is D
Answer: D. Contact the provider who will be performing the procedure.
Rationale:
A) Provide teaching about the surgical procedure for the client:
While nurses play an essential role in patient education, it is the responsibility of the healthcare provider performing the procedure to ensure the patient fully understands the details, risks, and benefits. Nurses can clarify information but should not provide the initial comprehensive explanation of the procedure.
B) Instruct the client's spouse to sign the consent form:
The client is the one who needs to provide informed consent, not the spouse, unless the client is legally unable to do so. In such cases, legal documentation, such as a power of attorney, is required. Instructing the spouse to sign without proper authorization is inappropriate and potentially legally problematic.
C) Read the consent form to the client using words the client will understand:
While simplifying the language of the consent form can help, it is not sufficient if the client does not fully understand the procedure. Full understanding requires a detailed discussion about the procedure, risks, benefits, and alternatives, which should be done by the provider performing the procedure.
D) Contact the provider who will be performing the procedure:
The provider performing the procedure has the responsibility to ensure the client understands all aspects of the surgery. Contacting the provider to provide a thorough explanation ensures that the client receives accurate and complete information, allowing for truly informed consent.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
While wearing a protective gown is essential to minimize exposure to bodily fluids and to ensure the nurse's protection, it is not specifically aimed at decreasing the risk for ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP). The key interventions to prevent VAP focus on maintaining airway hygiene and proper positioning, not just personal protective equipment during suctioning.
Choice B rationale:
Monitoring oral secretions every 2 hours is an important strategy in reducing the risk of VAP. Accumulation of secretions in the mouth and upper airway can promote bacterial growth, increasing the risk of aspiration and infection. By regularly assessing and removing secretions, the nurse can reduce the chances of bacteria being aspirated into the lungs and causing pneumonia.
Choice C rationale:
Oral care every 2 hours is a critical intervention to reduce the risk of VAP. Mechanical ventilation predisposes clients to the growth of bacteria in the oral cavity, and poor oral hygiene increases the risk of oral bacteria being aspirated into the lungs. Regular oral care, including brushing teeth, gums, and the tongue, as well as using antiseptic solutions, helps reduce the microbial load in the mouth and decreases the risk of VAP.
Choice D rationale:
Maintaining a client in a supine position is not recommended for preventing VAP. The best practice is to maintain the head of the bed elevated at a 30-45 degree angle (semi-Fowler's position) to reduce the risk of aspiration. A supine position increases the likelihood of gastric contents or secretions being aspirated into the lungs, which can lead to VAP.
Choice E rationale:
Assessing the client daily for readiness for extubation is an essential practice in preventing VAP. The longer a patient remains intubated, the higher the risk of developing VAP due to prolonged exposure of the endotracheal tube in the airway. Regular assessment for extubation helps to ensure that the client is appropriately weaned off the ventilator as soon as they are stable, reducing the risk of VAP and other complications associated with prolonged ventilation.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A blood glucose level of 100 mg/dL is within the normal range, so there is no need to notify the provider of this finding.
Choice B rationale:
A client's temperature of 37.6°C (99.7°F) is slightly elevated but not considered a critical finding. It may be indicative of an infection or other mild inflammation, but it does not warrant immediate provider notification.
Choice C rationale:
A potassium level of 5.7 mEq/L is above the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L). Hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac complications, such as arrhythmias, and requires immediate attention from the provider.
Choice D rationale:
Weight loss of 0.8 kg/day (1.8 lb/day) should be evaluated and monitored, but it is not an immediate concern that warrants urgent provider notification.
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