A nurse is caring for a client who is hemorrhaging and hypotensive from esophageal variceal bleeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Administer vasopressin to the client.
Request blood from blood bank.
Verify that the client has adequate IV access.
Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
The Correct Answer is C
Verify that the client has adequate IV access.
Choice A rationale:
Administering vasopressin to the client might be necessary to manage the hemorrhage, but before any medication administration, it is crucial to ensure the client has adequate IV access. Vasopressin is a vasoconstrictor and can help control bleeding from esophageal varices, but its effectiveness relies on IV access to deliver the medication promptly.
Choice B rationale:
Requesting blood from the blood bank is essential for a client experiencing significant bleeding. However, the priority action is to verify IV access to administer any necessary blood products.
Choice C rationale:
This is the correct choice. Before initiating any interventions, ensuring the client has appropriate IV access is a priority. Adequate IV access is necessary to administer fluids, medications, or blood products promptly and effectively stabilize the client's blood pressure.
Choice D rationale:
Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not the priority action in this situation. While monitoring urine output is important, it should be secondary to addressing the client's hypotension and hemorrhage.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Administering phenytoin IV no faster than 100 mg/min is crucial to prevent adverse effects such as cardiovascular collapse or severe hypotension. Rapid administration of phenytoin can cause cardiac arrhythmias and should be avoided.
Choice B rationale:
Monitoring plasma phenytoin levels to establish the therapeutic range is a necessary action in managing the client's seizure disorder, but it does not pertain to the specific administration of phenytoin via intermittent bolus.
Choice C rationale:
Adding the medication to the existing IV solution is not appropriate for phenytoin administration. Phenytoin should be administered separately and not mixed with other IV solutions to maintain its stability and prevent interactions.
Choice D rationale:
Monitoring the client for hypertension is not directly related to the administration of phenytoin via intermittent bolus. Hypertension is not a common adverse effect of this medication. However, blood pressure should be monitored as part of routine care for any client on antiepileptic therapy.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Answer: A. Diplopia.
Rationale:
A) Diplopia: Diplopia, or double vision, is a common symptom in multiple sclerosis (MS) due to demyelination of nerves in the brainstem, affecting eye movement coordination. This visual disturbance is frequently seen in MS clients and may worsen during flare-ups.
B) Masklike expression: A masklike expression is more commonly associated with Parkinson’s disease rather than multiple sclerosis. This characteristic facial appearance is due to muscle rigidity, which is not typically a manifestation of MS.
C) Twitching of the face: Facial twitching, or fasciculations, is not typically a primary symptom of multiple sclerosis. While muscle weakness and spasticity are common in MS, twitching is more commonly seen in conditions such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS).
D) Agitation: Agitation is not a primary symptom of MS. While MS can lead to cognitive changes or mood disturbances, such as depression, severe agitation is more commonly linked with other neurological or psychiatric conditions.
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