A nurse is providing teaching for a client about testicular cancer. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for during self-examination?
A painless lump in the testicle.
Decreased size of the testicle.
Left testicle descending lower than right testicle.
Dilated veins above the testicle.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Testicular cancer may present as a painless lump or swelling in the testicle. It's important for the client to monitor for any new or unusual lumps, as they could be indicative of cancer.
Choice B rationale:
A decreased size of the testicle is not a typical manifestation of testicular cancer. It is more commonly associated with conditions like testicular atrophy due to other causes.
Choice C rationale:
Asymmetry in the position of the testicles, with one testicle descending lower than the other, is a normal variation and not a sign of testicular cancer.
Choice D rationale:
Dilated veins above the testicle can be a sign of a varicocele, which is a separate condition from testicular cancer. It is caused by abnormal enlargement of veins in the scrotum and is generally not associated with cancer.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A PT (Prothrombin Time) of 12 seconds is not indicative of the effectiveness of heparin therapy for a pulmonary embolism. PT measures the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and it is more relevant to monitor in patients on warfarin therapy.
Choice B rationale:
The aPTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time) of 75 seconds is the correct choice as it reflects the effectiveness of unfractionated heparin therapy. Heparin works by inhibiting clotting factors in the intrinsic pathway, and the aPTT is used to monitor heparin's anticoagulant effect. The normal range for aPTT is typically 25-35 seconds.
Choice C rationale:
An INR (International Normalized Ratio) of 1.1 is not the appropriate parameter to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. INR is primarily used to monitor the effectiveness of oral anticoagulants like warfarin, not heparin.
Choice D rationale:
The platelet count of 200,000/mm² is not a suitable parameter to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Platelet count is important for assessing the risk of bleeding or clotting disorders but does not directly measure the impact of heparin on clotting factors.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Fruity-smelling breath is associated with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which is not the expected manifestation of chronic kidney disease (CKD). DKA occurs in uncontrolled diabetes and is not the priority for this client.
Choice B rationale:
Painful urination is not a typical clinical manifestation of chronic kidney disease. It is more commonly associated with urinary tract infections or other urological issues.
Choice C rationale:
Hypotension may occur in end-stage kidney disease, but it is not specific to chronic kidney disease and is not a priority in this scenario.
Choice D rationale:
Lethargy is a common clinical manifestation of chronic kidney disease due to the accumulation of waste products in the blood, leading to uremia. It is a priority as it indicates the progression of the disease and the need for close monitoring and intervention.
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