A nurse is planning care for a client who has disseminated herpes zoster (shingles). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
Place the client in a room with negative airflow.
Remove isolation gown after leaving the client's room.
Apply ketoconazole to the lesions three times per day.
Provide the client with eye protection for ultraviolet B light therapy.
The Correct Answer is A
Answer: A
Rationale:
A) Place the client in a room with negative airflow: Disseminated herpes zoster (shingles) requires airborne precautions because the virus can become aerosolized. A room with negative airflow helps prevent the spread of the virus to other areas, protecting healthcare workers and other patients from infection.
B) Remove isolation gown after leaving the client's room: Isolation gowns should be removed before leaving the client's room to prevent the spread of contaminants to other areas. This intervention is important for infection control but is not specific to the requirement for negative airflow in cases of disseminated herpes zoster.
C) Apply ketoconazole to the lesions three times per day: Ketoconazole is an antifungal medication and is not used for treating herpes zoster, which is caused by a viral infection. Antiviral medications, such as acyclovir, are appropriate for treating herpes zoster lesions.
D) Provide the client with eye protection for ultraviolet B light therapy: Eye protection is necessary during UVB light therapy to protect the eyes, but UVB light therapy is not a standard treatment for disseminated herpes zoster. The priority intervention is to prevent the spread of the infection by using a negative airflow room.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
An elevated WBC count (11,000/mm²) in a client starting treatment for MRSA infection may indicate an inflammatory response, but it is expected in this scenario, and the priority is not as high as other critical lab values.
Choice B rationale:
A serum pH of 7.25 indicates acidosis, which is a potentially life-threatening condition. In type 1 diabetes mellitus, diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a common complication that can lead to metabolic acidosis. This lab result is a priority as it requires immediate attention.
Choice C rationale:
Hematocrit of 26% in a client with sickle cell disease might be low, but it is not the priority over the critically abnormal lab value of serum pH in option B.
Choice D rationale:
A urine specific gravity of 1.032 in a client diagnosed with dehydration is elevated, indicating concentrated urine due to dehydration. While dehydration is concerning, it is not as high-priority as the potentially life-threatening acidosis in option B.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A capillary refill of less than 1 second is a normal finding and indicates adequate peripheral perfusion. It is not a cause for concern in this postoperative client.
Choice B rationale:
The presence of a pulse deficit should be reported to the provider because it suggests a discrepancy between the apical and radial pulses, indicating potential cardiovascular compromise or inadequate arterial perfusion.
Choice C rationale:
A systolic blood pressure 10 points lower than before surgery can be a normal response to anesthesia or surgery and may not necessarily require immediate reporting unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms or vital sign abnormalities.
Choice D rationale:
Pulse oximetry at 96% is within the normal range for oxygen saturation and does not warrant immediate reporting. However, if the client is experiencing respiratory distress or other concerning symptoms, it should be addressed promptly.
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