A nurse is providing teaching to a female client who has herpes simplex virus type 2. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
"I will take three sitz baths a week to relieve my discomfort.".
"I should cleanse my lesions with 1/2 strength peroxide.".
"I will avoid sexual activity until my lesions are healed.".
"I am not contagious once I begin antiviral medication.".
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
Taking sitz baths can provide comfort but will not directly address the transmission of herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2). It is essential to avoid sexual activity during outbreaks to prevent spreading the infection to a partner.
Choice B rationale:
Cleansing lesions with 1/2 strength peroxide may irritate the affected area and delay healing. The recommended approach is to use gentle soap and water to clean the lesions.
Choice C rationale:
"I will avoid sexual activity until my lesions are healed.”. This statement indicates an understanding of the teaching because HSV-2 is highly contagious during active outbreaks. Avoiding sexual activity during this time is essential to prevent transmitting the virus to a partner.
Choice D rationale:
"I am not contagious once I begin antiviral medication.”. This statement is incorrect as antiviral medications can help manage outbreaks but do not eliminate the risk of transmission entirely. The virus remains contagious until lesions are completely healed.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
An INR (International Normalized Ratio) of 0.8 is within the normal range for someone not on anticoagulation therapy. The aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) of 85 seconds is prolonged, but it is not a reason to withhold heparin in itself. Therefore, the nurse should not withhold the medication for these values.
Choice B rationale:
An INR of 2 indicates the client's blood is taking twice as long to clot compared to the average, which can increase the risk of bleeding. The aPTT of 60 seconds is within the normal range. However, the elevated INR suggests the client might be overly anticoagulated, so the nurse should withhold the medication and notify the provider.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Answer: A. Administer furosemide.
Rationales
A. Administer furosemide.
Furosemide, a loop diuretic, helps reduce fluid overload by promoting urinary excretion of sodium and water. In a client with cirrhosis and ascites, it decreases abdominal distention, eases breathing by reducing pressure on the diaphragm, and prevents complications related to severe fluid accumulation.
B. Weigh the client weekly.
Weekly weights would not provide sufficient monitoring for a client with ascites, since fluid retention can change rapidly within hours or days. Daily weights are necessary to detect subtle increases in fluid status and to evaluate the effectiveness of treatment.
C. Offer the client a high-sodium diet.
A high-sodium diet would worsen fluid retention and ascites, as sodium promotes water retention. Instead, a low-sodium diet is indicated to limit further fluid buildup in the peritoneal cavity.
D. Administer heparin.
Heparin is not a standard intervention for cirrhosis with ascites. Because the diseased liver produces fewer clotting factors, clients are already at risk for bleeding, and anticoagulant therapy would heighten this risk without addressing the underlying problem of fluid accumulation.
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