A nurse is caring for a client who has Raynaud's disease. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Provide information about stress management.
Administer epinephrine for acute episodes.
Maintain a cool temperature in the client's room.
Give a glucocorticoid steroid twice per day.
The Correct Answer is A
Rationale:
A. Provide information about stress management.: Stress is a major trigger for vasospastic episodes in Raynaud’s disease because it increases sympathetic nervous system activity, causing further arterial constriction. Stress-reduction techniques such as deep breathing, biofeedback, or relaxation exercises helps reduce the frequency and severity of attacks.
B. Administer epinephrine for acute episodes.: Epinephrine causes vasoconstriction, which would worsen Raynaud’s symptoms by further reducing blood flow to the extremities. During an acute episode, warming the affected areas and avoiding additional vasoconstrictors is essential. Epinephrine is not indicated as a treatment and can intensify ischemic discomfort
C. Maintain a cool temperature in the client's room.: Cold temperatures are one of the most common triggers for vasospasm in Raynaud’s disease. A cool environment increase the likelihood of an episode by promoting peripheral vasoconstriction. The nurse should provide a warm environment and encourage protective clothing to maintain circulation.
D. Give a glucocorticoid steroid twice per day.: Steroids are not a standard treatment for Raynaud’s because the condition is related to vasospasm rather than inflammatory processes. Routine steroid use would expose the client to unnecessary adverse effects without addressing the underlying problem. Management strategies focus instead on warmth, lifestyle modification, and vasodilator medications when needed.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E","G","H"]
Explanation
Rationale for correct choices
• Neurological: Reports that dizziness and palpitations started 2 months ago: Persistent dizziness and palpitations may indicate arrhythmias, decreased cardiac output, or early cardiovascular compromise. Although the client is alert and oriented, these symptoms suggest insufficient cerebral perfusion or possible underlying cardiac pathology that requires further evaluation.
• Cardiovascular: Pedal pulses +1 bilaterally, Pedal edema +1 bilaterally, Capillary refill time 5 seconds for all extremities: Diminished pulses, mild edema, and prolonged capillary refill time indicate potential peripheral arterial insufficiency and early signs of fluid overload or heart failure. These findings suggest impaired circulation and warrant further assessment.
• Respiratory: Fatigue and dyspnea with exertion started 1 week ago: New-onset exertional dyspnea and fatigue may be early indicators of compromised cardiac or pulmonary function. Despite clear lung sounds, these symptoms suggest reduced oxygen delivery or early heart failure. Prompt evaluation is required to prevent progression and to identify reversible causes.
• Vital Signs: Heart rate 105/min, Blood pressure 164/92 mm Hg: Tachycardia and hypertension indicate increased cardiac workload and potential risk for end-organ damage. Persistent elevated BP above 140/90 mm Hg is associated with cardiovascular complications, including left ventricular hypertrophy and renal impairment. Monitoring and further evaluation of cardiac function, lifestyle factors, and medication adherence are necessary.
Rationale for incorrect choices
• Neurological: Alert and oriented to person, place, and time: Being alert and oriented reflects intact cognitive function and does not require immediate further evaluation. While neurological changes may arise secondary to cardiac issues, orientation alone is within normal limits and is not concerning. This finding does not indicate acute pathology.
• Respiratory: Lungs clear to auscultation bilaterally: Clear lung sounds suggest no active pulmonary congestion, infection, or obstruction. Although dyspnea is present, the absence of adventitious lung sounds indicates that the respiratory system is not acutely compromised. Further evaluation focuses on cardiac or systemic causes rather than pulmonary pathology.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Social relationship with peers: Evaluating peer relationships helps determine the client’s emotional support system, which can influence stress levels and coping during pregnancy. However, this assessment does not pose an immediate impact on the physiologic wellbeing of the mother or fetus. It becomes more relevant after ensuring that no urgent health concerns are present.
B. Plans for attending school while pregnant: Exploring educational plans is important for long-term stability and preventing adverse socioeconomic outcomes. Although valuable for overall wellbeing, it is not an immediate safety concern. Educational planning should be addressed after assessing the pregnancy for factors that directly affect maternal–fetal health.
C. Understanding of infant care: Assessing knowledge of infant care helps identify educational needs before delivery and supports better neonatal outcomes. However, this is a future-oriented consideration and does not address the adolescent’s immediate health status. It becomes appropriate once urgent physiologic needs are evaluated.
D. Current nutritional status: Adolescents already have increased nutritional requirements for their own growth, and pregnancy further elevates these demands. Poor nutrition can lead to anemia, low birth weight, preterm birth, and delayed fetal growth, making it a priority assessment. Ensuring adequate maternal nutrition directly influences fetal development and reduces preventable complications.
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