A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia.
Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify what condition the client is most likely experiencing, 2 actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and 2 parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client's progress.
The Correct Answer is []
- Clostridium difficile infection is likely because the client has pneumonia and is receiving ceftriaxone, an antibiotic known to disrupt gut flora and cause opportunistic infections like C. difficile. The presence of frequent, liquid, foul-smelling stools further supports this diagnosis.
- Myocardial infarction is unlikely because while the client has chest pain, it is pleuritic and related to inspiration rather than the typical crushing, non-pleuritic chest pain seen in an MI. There is no mention of radiating pain, diaphoresis, or hemodynamic instability.
- Pulmonary edema is unlikely since it typically presents with dyspnea, crackles throughout the lung fields, pink frothy sputum, and signs of fluid overload such as peripheral edema and weight gain. The client’s symptoms do not align with this condition.
- Pulmonary embolism is also unlikely, as it presents with sudden-onset dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, tachycardia, and often calf swelling or a history of deep vein thrombosis. The client lacks the risk factors and clinical signs of PE.
- Placing the client on contact precautions is necessary because C. difficile is highly contagious and spreads through the fecal-oral route. Gloves and gowns should be used to prevent transmission.
- Obtaining a stool culture is necessary to confirm the presence of C. difficile toxins in the stool, which is essential for accurate diagnosis and treatment.
- Requesting a prescription for an anticoagulant is not necessary because the client does not show any signs of thromboembolic disease such as deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism. Anticoagulation could increase the risk of bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract, which would worsen the diarrhea.
- Requesting a prescription for a diuretic is not needed because the client is more likely to be dehydrated due to diarrhea. Diuretics would exacerbate fluid loss and electrolyte imbalances.
- Restricting fluids is not appropriate because dehydration is a major concern with C. difficile infection. Instead, fluid intake should be encouraged to prevent complications from excessive fluid loss.
- Level of consciousness should be monitored because severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalances can lead to confusion, weakness, and altered mental status. While altered mental status can occur with severe dehydration or sepsis, it is not the primary concern at this stage.
- Potassium level should be monitored because diarrhea can cause significant potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia, which can result in muscle weakness, cardiac arrhythmias, and fatigue.
- Urine output is not the most specific parameter for monitoring C. difficile infection. While dehydration is a concern, tracking electrolyte levels and neurological status is more critical.
- Calf swelling is not relevant since the client does not have signs or risk factors for deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism.
- Weight: C. difficile infection can cause significant fluid loss due to persistent diarrhea, leading to dehydration and weight loss. Tracking daily weight helps assess hydration status and the effectiveness of fluid replacement therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","D","E"]
Explanation
A. The student's asthma is not well controlled: Being in the yellow zone indicates that the student's asthma is not well controlled and that their peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) is lower than usual. This is a crucial point for the nurse to recognize, as it suggests that the student may need to adjust their management plan to prevent an exacerbation.
B. The nurse should obtain a second expiratory flow rate: While it can be helpful to reassess peak flow rates, it is not always necessary unless there is a concern about the accuracy of the initial measurement. The initial yellow zone result provides sufficient information for the nurse to take appropriate action regarding the student's asthma management.
C. The student needs to go to the hospital: Being in the yellow zone does not automatically require hospitalization. The yellow zone typically indicates that the student is experiencing some worsening of asthma symptoms but can often be managed at home with appropriate interventions. Hospitalization is usually reserved for the red zone, where severe symptoms or a significant decrease in peak flow occurs.
D. The student should use his quick-relief inhaler: This is an appropriate action for a student in the yellow zone. The yellow zone often indicates the need for the use of a quick-relief inhaler to alleviate symptoms and improve airflow. The nurse should advise the student to use their inhaler as per their asthma action plan.
E. The student's peak flow is 50% to 80% of his best peak flow: This statement accurately describes the yellow zone, where the peak flow is between 50% and 80% of the student's personal best. This information is essential for determining the appropriate response to the current asthma status and guides the nurse's actions.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Reports routinely list the identification number of any equipment involved: This practice is appropriate and helps in tracking any equipment-related issues. Including identification numbers can assist in identifying problems with specific devices or tools and does not represent a problem that needs to be reported.
B. Reports routinely include the client's hospital number: Including the client's hospital number in reports is standard practice for maintaining accurate records and ensuring proper tracking of incidents related to specific patients. This does not indicate a problem and is essential for accountability in healthcare reporting.
C. Reports routinely are completed within 24 hr after the incident: Timeliness in completing incident reports is important, and completing them within 24 hours is a best practice. This indicates a proactive approach to addressing incidents and does not represent a problem that needs to be reported to the risk manager.
D. Reports routinely omit the names of witnesses to the occurrence: This is a significant issue that should be reported to the risk manager. Witnesses can provide valuable information about the circumstances surrounding an incident, and their names should be documented for follow-up and investigation. Omitting this information could hinder the thoroughness of the incident review and the organization’s ability to address and prevent future occurrences effectively.
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