A nurse is caring for a client who has nephrotic syndrome and is receiving high-dose corticosteroid therapy. For which of the following electrolyte imbalances should the nurse monitor?
Hypokalemia.
Hypomagnesemia.
Hypermagnesemia.
Hyperkalemia.
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is: A
Choice A Reason: Hypokalemia refers to a lower-than-normal level of potassium in the bloodstream. Normal potassium levels are typically between 3.5 and 5.0 mEq/L. In the context of nephrotic syndrome and high-dose corticosteroid therapy, hypokalemia can occur due to increased urinary potassium losses caused by corticosteroid-induced alterations in kidney function. Corticosteroids can promote the excretion of potassium, leading to a deficiency.
Choice B Reason: Hypomagnesemia is a condition where there is a magnesium deficiency in the blood, with normal levels usually ranging between 1.7 and 2.2 mg/dL. While it can occur in nephrotic syndrome due to urinary losses of proteins that bind magnesium, it is not typically associated with corticosteroid therapy. Therefore, it is less likely to be monitored in this specific scenario.
Choice C Reason: Hypermagnesemia indicates an abnormally high level of magnesium in the blood. This condition is relatively rare and is not commonly associated with nephrotic syndrome or corticosteroid therapy. It is more often related to renal failure or excessive intake of magnesium-containing medications or supplements.
Choice D Reason: Hyperkalemia is characterized by an elevated level of potassium in the blood, with normal levels being 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L. While hyperkalemia can occur in nephrotic syndrome due to the loss of albumin in the urine, which can affect calcium and potassium binding, corticosteroid therapy typically causes a decrease in potassium levels, making hypokalemia a more relevant concern in this context.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
An increased WBC count with increased bands (immature neutrophils) indicates an acute infectious process. Normal range for WBC is 4,500-11,000/mm².
Choice B rationale:
A resolving inflammatory process would typically show a decreasing WBC count.
Choice C rationale:
An allergic reaction would typically show an increase in eosinophils, not neutrophils.
Choice D rationale:
Neutropenia is a decrease in neutrophils, not an increase.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice Arationale:
Holding the right arm straight is not a specific test for carpal tunnel syndrome.
Choice Brationale:
Extending the right arm upward is not a recognized test for carpal tunnel syndrome.
Choice C rationale:
Holding the wrist at a 90-degree flexion is similar to Phalen’s test, a recognized diagnostic test for carpal tunnel syndrome.
Choice D rationale:
Flexing the right arm at the elbow is not a recognized test for carpal tunnel syndrome.
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