A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and a new prescription for lisinopril.
For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor when administering lisinopril?
Tinnitus.
Hypotension.
Hypokalemia.
Bradycardia.
The Correct Answer is B
Lisinopril is an angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that is used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure. It works by relaxing the blood vessels and increasing the supply of blood and oxygen to the heart. However, one of the common side effects of lisinopril is hypotension, which means low blood pressure. Hypotension can cause dizziness, faintness, or lightheadedness when getting up suddenly from a lying or sitting position. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client’s blood pressure when administering lisinopril and report any signs of hypotension to the doctor.
Choice A is wrong because tinnitus, which means ringing or buzzing in the ears, is not a common or serious side effect of lisinopril.
Tinnitus can be caused by other factors such as ear infections, loud noises, or medications such as aspirin or antibiotics.
Choice C is wrong because hypokalemia, which means low potassium levels in the blood, is not a common or serious side effect of lisinopril. In fact, lisinopril can cause hyperkalemia, which means high potassium levels in the blood, especially in patients with kidney problems or diabetes. Hyperkalemia can cause irregular heartbeats, muscle weakness, or numbness. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client’s potassium levels when administering lisinopril and avoid giving potassium supplements or salt substitutes that contain potassium.
Choice D is wrong because bradycardia, which means slow heart rate, is not a common or serious side effect of lisinopril.
Lisinopril does not affect the heart rate directly, but it can lower the blood pressure and improve the heart function.
Bradycardia can be caused by other factors such as heart block, sinus node dysfunction, or medications such as beta blockers or calcium channel blockers.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
This is because TB is caused by a bacterium that can develop resistance to single-drug therapy, so a combination of drugs is used to prevent or treat drug-resistant strains. Some of the common drugs used for TB are isoniazid, rifampin, ethambutol, and pyrazinamide.
Choice A is wrong because the duration of treatment for active TB is usually 6 to 9 months, not 3 years.
Choice B is wrong because tuberculin skin tests are not reliable indicators of disease activity or response to treatment, as they can remain positive for years after successful therapy.
Choice C is wrong because blood tests to monitor kidney function are not routinely required for TB treatment unless the client has a preexisting renal impairment or is taking drugs that are nephrotoxic.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Colesevelam is a bile acid sequestrant that lowers cholesterol by binding to bile acids in the intestine and preventing their reabsorption into the bloodstream. Some possible explanations for the other choices are:
Choice A. Chlorpromazine is wrong because it is an antipsychotic medication that has no effect on cholesterol levels.
Choice C. Colchicine is wrong because it is an anti-inflammatory drug that is used to treat gout and other inflammatory conditions, not high cholesterol.
Choice D. Cimetidine is wrong because it is a histamine H2 receptor antagonist that reduces stomach acid production and is used to treat ulcers and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), not high cholesterol.
Normal ranges for cholesterol levels vary depending on the type of cholesterol and the risk factors of the individual, but generally, total cholesterol should be less than 200 mg/dL, LDL cholesterol should be less than 100 mg/dL, HDL cholesterol should be more than 40 mg/dL for men and 50 mg/dL for women, and triglycerides should be less than 150 mg/dL.
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