A nurse is caring for a client who has dementia and insists that a doll is their infant child. Which of the following behavioral management techniques should the nurse use when interacting with the client?

Cognitive reframing.

Thought stopping.

Validation therapy.

Operant conditioning.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A reason: Cognitive reframing. Cognitive reframing involves changing the way a person thinks about a situation to reduce stress or anxiety. While useful in some cases, it is not the most appropriate technique for addressing delusions in clients with dementia.

B reason: Thought stopping. Thought stopping is a technique used to interrupt and control intrusive thoughts, often used in cognitive-behavioral therapy. It is not suitable for managing the delusions of a client with dementia.

C reason: Validation therapy. Validation therapy involves accepting the client's perception of reality and responding in a way that acknowledges their feelings and experiences. For a client with dementia who believes a doll is their infant child, validation therapy helps provide comfort and reduces distress by not challenging their beliefs.

D reason: Operant conditioning. Operant conditioning involves using reinforcement to encourage desired behaviors and discourage undesired ones. It is not appropriate for addressing the delusions of a client with dementia, as it does not validate their experiences.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A reason: Decreased startle response to loud noises. Clients with PTSD typically have an increased startle response due to hyperarousal. A decreased startle response would not be expected in PTSD.

B reason: Reports uninterrupted sleep of 10 to 12 hours each night. Clients with PTSD often experience sleep disturbances, including nightmares and insomnia. Reporting uninterrupted sleep is not characteristic of PTSD.

C reason: Reluctance to discuss the event that precipitated the distress. Clients with PTSD commonly avoid discussing the traumatic event as a way to avoid triggering distressing memories and emotions. This avoidance behavior is a key symptom of PTSD.

D reason: Reports feelings of acute distress that began 1 to 2 weeks ago. PTSD symptoms usually develop within three months of the traumatic event but can also emerge years later. Acute distress that began 1 to 2 weeks ago may not align with the typical onset pattern of PTSD.

A. A client who is experiencing withdrawal from oxycodone. B. A client who is experiencing withdrawal from diazepam. C. A client who has a low lithium level. D. A client who has a low imipramine level.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A reason: A client who is experiencing withdrawal from oxycodone. While withdrawal from oxycodone can cause significant symptoms, it is not typically associated with seizures. Other withdrawal symptoms, such as anxiety and agitation, are more common.

B reason: A client who is experiencing withdrawal from diazepam. Withdrawal from diazepam, a benzodiazepine, can lead to seizures, especially if the drug is stopped abruptly. Seizure precautions are necessary to manage this risk and ensure the client's safety.

C reason: A client who has a low lithium level. A low lithium level typically indicates subtherapeutic dosing rather than an immediate risk of seizures. Monitoring for mood symptoms is more relevant in this context.

D reason: A client who has a low imipramine level. Low levels of imipramine, an antidepressant, do not generally pose a risk for seizures. The focus should be on managing depressive symptoms and adjusting medication as needed.

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A nurse is caring for a client who has dementia and insists that a doll is their infant child. Which of the following behavioral management techniques should the nurse use when interacting with the client?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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