A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder.
The client yells at the nurse whenever medication changes are prescribed by the client's provider.
The nurse should identify that the client is using which of the following defense mechanisms?
Displacement.
Splitting.
Sublimation.
Conversion.
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is: a. Displacement.
Choice A Reason: Displacement is a defense mechanism where a person redirects a negative emotion from its original source to a less threatening recipient. In the context of bipolar disorder, a client may displace anger or frustration about their condition or treatment onto the nurse, who is not the source of these feelings. This redirection can occur because the client might feel powerless or uncomfortable expressing these emotions towards their healthcare provider, who is the authority figure prescribing medication changes.
Choice B Reason: Splitting is often associated with borderline personality disorder rather than bipolar disorder. It involves viewing things in extremes—either all good or all bad—with no middle ground. While individuals with bipolar disorder can exhibit black-and-white thinking, especially during mood episodes, the behavior described does not indicate splitting, as it does not involve idealizing or devaluing the nurse or provider.
Choice C Reason: Sublimation is a mature defense mechanism where socially unacceptable impulses or idealizations are unconsciously transformed into socially acceptable actions or behavior, often resulting in a long-term conversion of the initial impulse. For example, a person with aggressive tendencies might take up a sport that channels aggression in a socially acceptable way. The scenario provided does not suggest that the client is channeling their frustrations into a constructive activity.
Choice D Reason: Conversion involves the transfer of mental stress into physical symptoms. This defense mechanism is characteristic of conversion disorder, where psychological stress manifests as neurological symptoms like blindness, paralysis, or other sensory or motor symptoms without a medical cause. The client yelling at the nurse does not reflect a conversion of emotional distress into physical symptoms.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"B"}
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B and C.
Choice A rationale:
Cervical insufficiency is a condition where the cervix begins to shorten and open too early during pregnancy, leading to premature birth or loss of an otherwise healthy pregnancy. However, the client’s symptoms do not indicate cervical insufficiency. There are no reports of lower abdominal pressure, mild pelvic cramps, or a change in vaginal discharge, which are common symptoms of cervical insufficiency.
Choice B rationale:
The client’s severe headache unrelieved by acetaminophen, +3 pitting edema in bilateral lower extremities, and hyperactive reflexes (patellar reflex 4+) are indicative of severe preeclampsia. One of the complications of severe preeclampsia is seizures, also known as eclampsia. Therefore, the client is at risk for developing seizures.
Choice C rationale:
Placental abruption is a serious pregnancy complication in which the placenta detaches from the uterus prematurely. The client’s report of decreased fetal movement could be a sign of placental abruption. In addition, severe preeclampsia can increase the risk of placental abruption. Therefore, the client is at risk for developing placental abruption.
Choice D rationale:
Heart failure occurs when the heart can’t pump enough blood to meet the body’s needs. While preeclampsia can eventually affect many organ systems including the cardiovascular system, there are no immediate signs of heart failure in the client’s symptoms.
Choice E rationale:
Hypoglycemia refers to low blood sugar levels. The client’s symptoms do not suggest hypoglycemia. Symptoms of hypoglycemia typically include confusion, dizziness, feeling shaky, hunger, headaches, irritability, pounding heart or irregular heartbeat, sweating, trembling or tremors, and weakness. In conclusion, based on the client’s symptoms and clinical presentation, she is at greatest risk for developing seizures (Choice B) and placental abruption (Choice C) due to severe preeclampsia.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The statement "Avoid breastfeeding for 3 days after receiving the vaccine" is not accurate. Breastfeeding can continue after the MMR vaccination without any adverse effects on the infant. There is no need to interrupt breastfeeding.
Choice B rationale:
The correct instruction is to "Avoid pregnancy for at least 28 days after receiving the vaccine." This is because the MMR vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine, and there is a theoretical risk of transmitting the virus to a developing fetus. Waiting for 28 days after vaccination allows the woman's immune system to respond to the vaccine and reduce any potential risk to the fetus. This is especially important during the postpartum period when a woman may be at risk of becoming pregnant again.
Choice C rationale:
The statement "If you are allergic to gluten, you should not receive this vaccine" is not accurate. The MMR vaccine does not contain gluten as an ingredient. Allergic reactions to the MMR vaccine are generally related to components of the vaccine itself, not gluten.
Choice D rationale:
The instruction to "Your partner should also receive the MMR vaccine" is not a standard recommendation for postpartum women. While it is essential for individuals to be up-to-date on their vaccinations, the focus in this scenario should be on the postpartum woman receiving the MMR vaccine to protect herself and any future pregnancies.
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