A nurse is caring for a client who has an acute exacerbation of chronic pain. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering for the client?
Naloxone
Acetaminophen
Fentanyl
Zolpidem
The Correct Answer is C
Rationale:
A. Naloxone: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid overdose. It does not provide pain relief and is not appropriate for managing acute exacerbations of chronic pain.
B. Acetaminophen: Acetaminophen is useful for mild to moderate pain but may be insufficient for an acute exacerbation of chronic pain, especially if the client has severe or breakthrough pain.
C. Fentanyl: Fentanyl is a potent opioid analgesic appropriate for managing severe acute pain or acute exacerbations of chronic pain. It acts rapidly to relieve pain and is often used in clients already tolerant to opioids.
D. Zolpidem: Zolpidem is a sedative-hypnotic used to treat insomnia. It does not have analgesic properties and is not indicated for pain management.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Contraction intensity increased by ambulation: True labor contractions typically intensify with walking or activity, as the uterus works to dilate and efface the cervix. If contractions strengthen with movement, it suggests active labor rather than false labor.
B. Presence of bloody show: Bloody show indicates cervical changes with effacement and dilation, which are signs of true labor. Its presence helps differentiate true labor from false labor.
C. Slow change in dilation and effacement: True labor is characterized by progressive cervical change. Slow or minimal change in dilation and effacement is more consistent with false labor, but the primary hallmark is the nature of contractions.
D. Intermittent, painless contractions: False labor (Braxton Hicks contractions) is usually irregular, intermittent, and painless or minimally uncomfortable. They do not cause consistent cervical change and often subside with rest or position changes, making this a key distinguishing feature.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Rationale:
A. History of severe menorrhagia: A copper IUD can increase menstrual bleeding and cramping. Clients with a history of severe menorrhagia are at higher risk for exacerbated bleeding and anemia, making this a contraindication to IUD insertion. Alternative contraceptive methods should be considered for these clients.
B. Desire to become pregnant in 1 to 2 years: While the client’s future fertility plans may influence contraceptive choice, it is not a medical contraindication. The IUD can be removed at any time, allowing fertility to return quickly, so this does not preclude insertion.
C. Takes antiretroviral therapy for HIV: HIV infection or antiretroviral therapy is not a contraindication to IUD use. Clients with HIV can safely use intrauterine contraception, provided there are no active pelvic infections.
D. Report of unprotected sex in the past 24 hr: Recent unprotected intercourse is not a contraindication, but the nurse should assess the risk of pregnancy and consider emergency contraception if appropriate. It does not medically prevent IUD insertion.
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