A nurse is caring for a client who has an abruptio placentae. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
First trimester bleeding
Nausea
Delayed menses
Severe abdominal pain
The Correct Answer is D
Rationale:
A. First trimester bleeding: Abruptio placentae typically occurs in the third trimester, not the first. First trimester bleeding is more commonly associated with conditions like miscarriage or ectopic pregnancy.
B. Nausea: Nausea is a non-specific symptom of pregnancy and not a hallmark of abruptio placentae. It does not help distinguish this condition from other obstetric complications.
C. Delayed menses: Delayed menses is an early sign of pregnancy, not a finding related to abruptio placentae. It occurs long before the placenta forms and has no diagnostic value in placental abruption.
D. Severe abdominal pain: Abruptio placentae involves premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, leading to intense, persistent abdominal pain, uterine tenderness, and often vaginal bleeding. It is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Oxytocin: Oxytocin is the first-line uterotonic used to manage postpartum hemorrhage by stimulating uterine contractions to reduce bleeding. It is safe for use in clients with preeclampsia and does not elevate blood pressure.
B. Methylergonovine: Methylergonovine is contraindicated in clients with preeclampsia or hypertension because it causes vasoconstriction, which can dangerously elevate blood pressure and increase the risk of stroke or seizure.
C. Carboprost: Although carboprost is effective for postpartum hemorrhage, it should be used cautiously in clients with hypertension. It can cause bronchospasm and elevate blood pressure, which may worsen preeclampsia symptoms.
D. Nifedipine: Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker used for managing hypertension and preterm labor. It is not indicated for treating postpartum hemorrhage as it lacks uterotonic effects.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Insert the oral thermometer in front of the infant's tongue: Oral temperature measurement is not appropriate for infants due to the risk of injury and their inability to hold the thermometer properly. It is generally reserved for children older than 4–5 years.
B. Pull the pinna of the infant's ear forward before inserting the probe: When using a tympanic thermometer for infants under 3 years, the correct method is to pull the pinna down and back, not forward, to straighten the ear canal.
C. Insert the probe 3.8 cm (1.5 in) into the infant's rectum: This depth is too invasive and risks rectal perforation. For infants, rectal insertion should be only 1.5 to 2.5 cm (0.6–1 in), with extreme caution.
D. Place the tip of the thermometer under the center of the infant's axilla: Axillary temperature is the safest and most noninvasive route for infants. Ensuring full skin contact under the center of the axilla provides the most accurate axillary reading.
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