A nurse is caring for a client who has a severe gangrenous infection of the right lower extremity. The nurse should plan preoperative teaching based on the possibility of which of the following amputation procedures?
"Your pain will gradually become less severe."
The pain will disappear soon."
"it's likely that you will have only a tingling sensation."
"Phantom pain is mostly psychological.
The Correct Answer is A
A. "Your pain will gradually become less severe." This statement is accurate and provides realistic expectations for the client. After an amputation, there will be initial post operative pain, but it should gradually decrease over time.
B. "The pain will disappear soon." This statement is not accurate. While the pain will eventually decrease, it may not completely disappear immediately after the procedure.
C. "It's likely that you will have only a tingling sensation." This statement is not accurate. While some clients may experience tingling sensations, it is not the only sensation they may feel, and this statement does not cover the full range of possible experiences.
D. "Phantom pain is mostly psychological." This statement is not accurate. Phantom pain is a real sensation that some individuals experience after an amputation. It is believed to be related to nerve endings that continue to send signals to the brain even though the limb is no longer present. It is not purely psychological.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Hypovolemic shock is characterized by a significant loss of blood volume. While it can occur due to severe trauma, the symptoms of shortness of breath and chest pain are more indicative of a potential respiratory issue, making Fat Embolism Syndrome (FES) a higher concern in this case.
B. Correct. Given the client's recent multiple long bone fractures and the symptoms of shortness of breath and chest pain, the nurse should be concerned about the possibility of fat embolism syndrome (FES). FES can occur as a result of long bone fractures, particularly those involving the femur, pelvis, or tibia. Fat emboli can enter thebloodstream and potentially obstruct blood vessels, leading to symptoms such as shortness of breath, chest pain, and altered mental status.
C. Venous thromboembolism (VTE) is a condition involving the formation of blood clots in the veins, which can lead to complications such as deep vein thrombosis (DVT) or pulmonary embolism (PE). While this is a consideration for clients with immobilization due to fractures, it is not the primary concern in this case based on the presenting symptoms.
D. Compartment syndrome is a condition characterized by increased pressure within a muscle compartment, leading to decreased blood flow and potential tissue damage. While it can occur after fractures, it typically presents with symptoms like severe pain, swelling, and tense muscles, rather than shortness of breath and chest pain.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Delaying the surgery until a member of the client's family is reached may not be in the best interest of the client if urgent surgical intervention is indicated.
B. While naloxone can reverse the effects of opioids like morphine, it is not the primary action the neurosurgeon would take in this situation. The priority is addressing the urgent surgical need.
C. Invoking implied consent is the most appropriate action in this situation. Implied consent is assumed in emergency situations where the client is unable to provide consent, and delay would significantly jeopardize the client's health.
D. Asking the client to sign the surgical consent form would not be feasible in this situation since the client is likely not in a condition to provide informed consent due to the administration of intravenous morphine and the urgency of the surgical intervention.
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